Understanding God’s election

No doubt due to OT prophecy that predicted that the Messiah's "close friend" would lift up his heel against him (Ps 41:9). But was Judas truly a friend? Or was he a "friend" in name only -- because he was part of a Jesus' circle of true friends? With friends like Judas, who needs enemies, right?

You wouldn't be able to exegete a passage if your life depended on it.

I bet mine is better than yours.

Jesus' words in John 6 verse 45b and John 6 verse 39b

Still haven't signed up for GA counseling, heh?

No, but I am grateful your therapy sessions seem to be working.
(because the worst name you have called me lately is the "Master at Eisegesis" :^)

You earned the title. Love it. Live it. Own it.

Indeed he does. But GWH is the Eisegesis-in-Chief on this thread.

Pot & Kettle.

Projection.

Eisegete calling another eisegete = the callee likely an exegete.

I view translators as exegetes and my roll as dot connector or harmonizing the exegeses,
which is what I have been practicing ever since making my first margin notes in my own
New English Bible way back circa 1968 (before the google era :^)

Indeed he does. But GWH is the Eisegesis-in-Chief on this thread.

Must be nice living in your bubble of disillusionment.

“For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him.”
‭‭Romans‬ ‭10:12‬ ‭


“For this cause I Paul, the prisoner of Jesus Christ for you Gentiles, how that by revelation he made known unto me the mystery;…which in other ages was not made known unto the sons of men, as it is now revealed unto his holy apostles and prophets by the Spirit;

that the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:”
‭‭Ephesians‬ ‭3:1, 3, 5-6‬ ‭KJV‬‬

“There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.”
‭‭Galatians‬ ‭3:28‬ ‭

Good Morning, Y'all. Hope everyone had a good night's sleep and that everyone's mind is sharp as a tack, most especially you FW lovers; for I have a question to ask you. Ready? Here it is: You FWers claim that Christ died for all men w/o exception. So, please tell me for what biblical purpose did Christ die for "all" men? Can't wait to hear your replies.

Seriously, you can answer this even though you don't agree with it.

Have you decided not to persevere with participating in the study of election on the Hermeneutics thread?

What's the matter you FW brainiacs: Can't answer my question in 12,596? Too difficult for you? Or are you all so stuck on stup.. that the only non-biblical answer you can give is: The purpose is so that Christ could become the potential Savior of everyone in the world. Or the purpose behind Christ's death is so that God could show the world he's an EOE who gives every single man, woman and child an equal opportunity to be saved.

Are you FWer's so ignorant of the scriptures that you're unable to come with the biblical purpose behind Christ's death? You'd rather hide behind one of your contrived purposes because it's safer to do since it protects and guards your theological agenda? Tsk, tsk, tsk.

When I have enough time to do some work I may work on those verses I started.