The Error is Baptism in Jesus name only for salvation

You are a cherry picker who does not consider the totality of scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine. You only seem to care about what your pet verses "on the surface" appear to say and most likely to accommodate a biased church doctrine. I accept Jesus' word. I just don't accept your eisegesis.

In John 3:5, Jesus said born of water and the Spirit. He did not say born of baptism and the Spirit and He also did not say unless one is water baptized; he cannot enter the kingdom of God. In the very next chapter, Jesus mentions "living water" in John 4:10, 14 and He connects living water with eternal life in John 4:14. Also, in John 7:38-39, we read - "He who believes in Me, as the Scripture has said, out of his heart will flow rivers of living water. But this He spoke concerning the Spirit. *Did you see that? The Holy Spirit is the source of living water and spiritual cleansing.

If "water" is arbitrarily defined as baptism, then we could just as justifiably say, "Out of his heart will flow rivers of living baptism" in John 7:38. If this sounds ridiculous, it is no more so than the idea that water baptism is the source or the means of becoming born again. So, to automatically read "baptism" into John 3:5 simply because it mentions "water" is unwarranted.

Also "water" is used in the Bible as an emblem of the word of God, and in such uses it is associated with cleansing or washing. (John 15:3; Ephesians 5:26) When we are born again, the Holy Spirit begets new life, so that we are said to become "partakers of the divine nature." (2 Peter 1:4) The new birth is brought to pass through "incorruptible seed, by the word of God, which lives and abides forever" (I Peter 1:23) and the Holy Spirit accomplishes the miracle of regeneration. (Titus 3:5)

I did not see where you answered my question so I will ask it again. Are you a Oneness Pentacostal?

Sorry should have asked, how are you today?

So are you saying IT DOES NOT mean baptism? Or are you saying it could mean baptism and mean something else? Acts 2:38 and 22:16 clear up any confusion. I will add after the first message JEWS obeyed Peter and 3 thousand souls were added. That message and the results of it speaks in volume.

Since JESUS was baptized to make his path straight shouldn't we?

Why do you think GOD when thought ALL of the trouble of having John the baptist born and in the wilderness preaching baptism?

Think of John's life, being filled with the Holy Ghost from birth WHY???

Mark 1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

And why do you think Acts 2:38 was the first message preached which almost says the same thing as John 3:5?

I don't claim to be anything I'm a JESUS follower, born of water and of spirit! Not saying I'm perfect in anyway, just spreading the gospel with the FOUNDATION because to me what good is it not being reborn!!!

I'm sharing HIS WORD not any denomination views or man's thought's JUST HIS WORD.

Why do you ask are so called oneness Pentecostals the only ones who follow his word?

Good morning, you said,

Personally speaking here, I believe anyone baptized Matthew 28:19 or Acts 2:38 will be in Heaven because they're saved first before they got water baptized.

Two questions please.

1. If we are told to be baptized in JESUS name ONLY and you think different ways work why did those who were baptized by John have to be re-baptized? And when they were it was in JESUS name?

2 Corinthians 13:1 This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.

Is there a second place in HIS word where ANYONE was told or baptized in the name of the father, the son and the Holy Ghost? Why do people do it then?

Since sin sepetates us from GOD, and the only way to get rid of them is being baptized in JESUS name.

2. How can a person be saved WITHOUT getting rid of their sins?

Good morning, you said,

Personally speaking here, I believe anyone baptized Matthew 28:19 or Acts 2:38 will be in Heaven because they're saved first before they got water baptized.

Two questions please.

1. If we are told to be baptized in JESUS name ONLY and you think different ways work why did those who were baptized by John have to be re-baptized? And when they were it was in JESUS name?

2 Corinthians 13:1 This is the third time I am coming to you. In the mouth of two or three witnesses shall every word be established.

Is there a second place in HIS word where ANYONE was told or baptized in the name of the father, the son and the Holy Ghost? Why do people do it then?

Since sin sepetates us from GOD, and the only way to get rid of them is being baptized in JESUS name.

2. How can a person be saved WITHOUT getting rid of their sins?

Yeah they are one just like believers are supposed to be one. are we one big living organism that is fighting with itself?

Jesus prayed for us to be one as He and the Father are .He prayed to the Father but carry on and ignore what is obvious about your belief that people are not saved according to you. YOU are not the dispenser of salvation. What did people do before you were born? Die as they were? Or what about those who do not come to this forum? Are they all lost if they do not follow your formula?

There are millions of lives at stake. Jesus died for us all and not just for those who speak in tongues or believe a la/le wansvic

I don't suppose you ever consider that though being in that tight little oneness world of yours

Those verses are interesting because I use what most scholars claim to be the oldest text we have and it's very different than your version.

6 This is he that came by water and blood, even Jesus Christ; not with the water only, but with the water and with the blood.

7 And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is the truth.

8 For there are three who bear witness, the Spirit, and the water, and the blood: and the three agree in one.

Sorry should have asked, how are you today?

So are you saying IT DOES NOT mean baptism?

Or are you saying it could mean baptism and mean something else?

Acts 2:38 and 22:16 clear up any confusion.

I will add after the first message JEWS obeyed Peter and 3 thousand souls were added. That message and the results of it speaks in volume.

Since JESUS was baptized to make his path straight shouldn't we?

Why do you think GOD when thought ALL of the trouble of having John the baptist born and in the wilderness preaching baptism?

Think of John's life, being filled with the Holy Ghost from birth WHY???

Mark 1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.

And why do you think Acts 2:38 was the first message preached which almost says the same thing as John 3:5?

I don't claim to be anything I'm a JESUS follower, born of water and of spirit! Not saying I'm perfect in anyway, just spreading the gospel with the FOUNDATION because to me what good is it not being reborn!!!

I'm sharing HIS WORD not any denomination views or man's thought's JUST HIS WORD.

Why do you ask are so called oneness Pentecostals the only ones who follow his word?

Uh oh. First time, kid?

Now, someone will have to repeat the made-up story about that particular thief being baptized before he hung on the cross. There's no record of this, of course...

I agree with you, but expect some push back.

Thank you for sharing this. I did check the Strong's and it lines up with what you state. However, having limited knowledge concerning particular manuscripts, I am not sure which one's prompted the KJV translators to include " in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one." in verse 7:


1 John 5:7-8
7 There are three that bear record
8 the spirit, and the water, and the blood and these three agree in one.
(Interlinear Transliterated Bible. Copyright © 1994, 2003, 2006 by Biblesoft, Inc.)

It was still an external manifestation.

Do you believe that the disciples were saved the day of Pentecost?

Jesus was baptized so that all righteousness should be fulfilled...Matthew 3:15.

Jesus was baptized so that all righteousness should be fulfilled...Matthew 3:15.

When you baptize disciples into the name of the Father, “SON” and Holy Ghost, you are baptizing them into Jesus. . Jesus is the “Son.” Since this was a command of Jesus and He said do it this way, it makes no difference if you say they are “titles” or names. Obviously, Jesus did not care or make a distinction. Unless you can show a scripture that forbids doing what Jesus said to do in Matthew 28:19 then you are making a distinction and. A Prohibition where Jesus did not make one. Matthew 28:19 must be in harmony with all of the scriptures you cite trying to prove its ONLY. in Jesus name, or we have a contradiction in the bible and I don’t accept that. If the Bible contradicts itself then we cannot believe it or trust it. So, I know Matthew 28:19 is true and if Someone baptized in the name of the Father, Son and Holy Ghost, they are doing exactly what Jesus said to do. How can that be wrong? God is not trying to trick us. To say that is wrong is to contradict Jesus, question His authority, and that makes you an “unbeliever” in the Son of God.

I believe your doctrine is erroneous; making a distinction
where God has not made one and thereby causing scriptures to contradict other scriptures, which that within itself would prove a fallacy in your argument.

The assumption that “one”, in John 10, is talking about only one personality in the Godhead, instead of three, also Is wrong; as Jesus explains what He means in chapter 17 in His prayer to the Father when He says He wants all of his followers to be “one” just like He and the Father are “one.” JUST LIKE … in the same way…and He is NOT talking about having just 1 follower in the whole world that represents All disciples. But that is what He would be saying if your interpretation of “one” is correct. It is not. Jesus means He and the Father are “one” in agreement, unity, in purpose, teachings, and beliefs. They do not disagree on anything. We use the same meaning today and ascribe it to two people or a group of people who are “one” in unity or agreement.




Ok

Then he's in big trouble. He certainly didn't have time to offer sacrifices for his sin.

Scripture indicates those who believe and obey the message presented at Pentecost experience the NT rebirth. Peter explained that everyone must be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ for remission of sin. As such, that would include the disciples since Jesus stated that repentance and remission of sin would be preached IN HIS NAME beginning in Jerusalem.

The rebirth is essential for salvation; Jesus said everyone must be reborn, and unless a man is born of water and of the Spirit he cannot enter the kingdom. (John 3:5)

Jesus acted unrighteously?

We have no idea whether the thief did or did not offer sacrifices. The account provides no information other than he was condemned as a thief. And regardless, the NT was begun well after the thief was dead.

Jesus did not act unrighteously because requirements associated with the rebirth apply to those living in the NT.

Then he's in big trouble. He certainly didn't have time to offer sacrifices for his sin.