Does Hebrews 10 say if we willfully sin after being saved there is no more forgiveness?
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No, Jesus said what I cited in 1Tim. 2:3-4, John 3:16, Matt. 23:37, Matt. 13:14-15, and John 8, esp. 42-44.
Okay, created unfree faith is fake/robotic.
Comparing what Jesus said in Matt 16: 17, "Blessed are you, Simon bar Jonah! For this was not revealed to you by flesh and blood, but by My Father in heaven," with John 20:29 when Jesus said to Thomas, "Because you have seen Me, you have believed; Blessed are those are those who have not seen and yet have believed," then it isn't so unreasonable to conclude that Jesus is addressing the reward of things no one can know except by faith in the word that was given to them, and that they've heard, in both cases.
But, certainly, no one thinks it reasonable to concluded that Peter is saved and Thomas is not.
But, certainly, no one thinks it reasonable to concluded that Peter is saved and Thomas is not.
Are you saying this is what you believe because I never said nor implied that God created unfree people who were robotic?
Your citations don't defeat or contradict what Jesus said to Nicodemus that apart from being born again, a person will not recognize the kingdom of God. And if they don't interpret the miracles that Jesus performed as evidence that he is from God and everything he said was true, then they won't repent or believe.
Yes, I believe God created humans with MFW instead of programmed robots and in addition to instinctual animals.
I also believe such MFW enables sinners either to repent and be born again or to resist/ignore GW and reap wrath.
Yes, Jesus is Messiah, the Way to be saved, the Truth about how to be saved/GRFS and the eternal Life for those who are reborn or in the Kingdom because the King is in them.
ACTS 15:15-18.
No, God did not reject the remnant, therefore He did not reject the Jews
God foreknew the Jewish and Gentile believers and coding to Acts 15:15-18 and Paul clearly states that God did not cast away the Jews. More than once.
So did God give Jesus Judas as a sheep who Jesus said would never perish and that He would not lose one, or was Judas chosen for another purpose and perished according to scripture, meaning it was foreknown by God.
Don't give anyone excuse for being lackadaisical about the word of God.
A resolution to what? the OP's question? I don't think anyone would depict Paul as to be trampling on God's grace but rather dependent on and clinging to it. Though Paul himself admits his sins from the perspective of his flesh, he asserts that he does so unwillingly from the perspective of his spirit. And so, this provides a reference point of what scripture means when comparing those that walk in the flesh with those walking in the spirit. The flesh has a will of its own, and those walking in the flesh want to do what the flesh wants to do, that is the spirit wants to be one with the flesh. But those walking in the spirit do not want to do what the flesh wants to do, and these spirits are warring with the flesh. However, there are those that, even if only indirectly, assert that the (newly created) spirit can be one with the body (I suppose by the interpretation of subjecting it), which comes close to suggesting that the body can want to do what the spirit wants to do, as is an ideal goal of the effort in walking in the spirit. What say you of this ambition? Would you consider it at all unrealistic?
I was explaining that the word "foreknew" in the letter to the Romans was applied to the Jews.
The two occurrences of 'foreknew' in Romans have nothing to do with the Gentiles.
Paul states clearly that there was a remnant of the Jews only.
Romans 11:5
So too, at the present time there is a remnant chosen by grace.
No one would argue that God does not know everything.
It is not God's wish that anyone perish.
Judas was called, chosen to be an apostle the same as the rest of the apostles.
Judas had his reason for betraying Jesus.
Of course, God knew all this from eternity.
Which does not mean that God would torment Judas by choosing him then to ultimately reject him.
That is not love and that divine love is the most important attribute of God.
Romans 11:7-10
What then? What the people of Israel sought so earnestly they did not obtain. The elect among them did, but the
others were hardened, as it is written: “God gave them a spirit of stupor, eyes that could not see and ears that could not hear,
to this very day.” And David says: “May their table become a snare and a trap, a stumbling block and a retribution for them.
May their eyes be darkened so they cannot see, and their backs be bent forever."
God rejected the Jews outright with only a very small remnant that are saved.
So that answer is pretty much in agreement with what I originally said about election, right?
But Acts 15:15-18:clearly says that tgecGentiles are also fork own by God. And where do you see Paul saying that Romans 8 is only about Jews?
If I may seize this opportunity to take advantage of such a good question, offer my opinion. The flesh is born of flesh, and it, naturally, matures into full-grown sin, after it is birthed. And so, as it occurred to me that the light has been in inseminated into everyone (I've recently encounter scripture for this but having committed it to immediate recall just yet), and that light is spirit, which also must be brought to birth and then, ideally, come to maturity.
Perhaps, it is that it must be "mixed with faith" in order to then be a 'viable fetus.'"Born-again" means indwelt by the HS (Rev. 3:20, Rom. 5:5), which occurs when sinners repent (Matt. 4:17), seek (Matt. 7:7) and find faith in Jesus as Messiah and Lord (John 6:29, Acts 16:31).
"Unless" is akin to IF, referring to God's condition/requirement/must for being reborn and resurrected to heaven (cf. Rom. 8:9).