Romans 3:10 is describing every human being without exception — Jew and Gentile alike — as universally, comprehensively, and hopelessly sinful apart from God’s saving grace. Paul is not describing a subgroup, a culture, a class, or a type of sinner. He is describing all humanity in Adam.
Not quite.
I think I answered “Anyone who has a body of flesh.” Could have been another thread.
I take that to be all humanity before they are saved. What I'm trying to understand from your perspective is what occurs in the life of one such unbeliever that results in their salvation. Is it simply a matter of the individual employing their natural faculties, God creating in the individual the faculties that results in salvation, or a combination of the two?
That’s a good question.
But you are well aware that Paul is documented by Luke in the Book of Acts as stating God created man with the ability to seek after and find God. It's true that Paul also said that man doesn't do that. But this Doctrine about man not being able to seek God should he want to proves man has the inate ability to do so and isn't as incapable as the Tulip Doctrine proclaims.
But you don't believe what the Word of God says. I have already proved that fact to you, numerous times
No this is not true.
Well did it?
Yes. and what was Jacobs gift? A nation called by his name.
and you just proved once again what I said about you earlier
If I told a stranger that the Lord Jesus died for them, I would be a liar. I don't know who the Lord Jesus died for, but I do know that it's not for the majority of the world, since the Lord Jesus will cast the majority of mankind into the lake of fire while they beg Him for mercy.
None of that is true, because it's all based on the Arminian "saved by works" version of the gospel. And not on truth of the gospel as we have it in the Bible.
What you said about me earlier was nonsense, as it was not based on any facts or evidence. I love correction, but you haven't offered any as yet and your throw aways lines are not correction at all.
Where does Paul state as you have claimed?
Acts 17:
Cmon brother!
Look at the opening of Paul's argument again. What is his main concern?
Right. But before we look ahead to chapter 11, we must understand Paul's argument here in chapter 9. In order to prove that God's promise to Israel was never intended to have universal application to each and every person in Israel, he cites the Scriptures where God is sorting one natural-born son of Abraham from another. He concludes that the children of the promise are those whom God chooses, he chooses them before they are born, they are created to serve a purpose, and he circumcises their hearts.
No. The passage in Hosea is talking about the Northern Kingdom of Israel. As you might recall, the nation of Israel divided itself into two kingdoms: the Northern ten tribes and the Southern two tribes. The northern kingdom was called "Israel" and the Southern Kingdom was called "Judah"
That's not what the verse is teaching. Paul is saying that God has configured contours of people's lives...when they live, where they live...that He may be sought and found. In other words, no one can blame God for not creating the best conditions to be i in relationship with Him. It says nothing about the estate of fallen man.
