That is because the translation I am using is written in modern english. When ever a text is translated into another language then the translated language is where we start. Because unless you are challenging the translation/saying it is wrong, then the purpose of the translation is to use modern english to make what was written in the koine greek understandable.
A modern English translation gives you English words, but it does not replace Scripture’s categories, because “private,” “public,” and “corporate” in English describe access, while the biblical text describes motive and audience, meaning you cannot start with Webster’s definitions and then force the NT to fit them — you must start with what the Greek meant, or you end up redefining clear prayer passages to protect your system rather than submitting your system to the text.
Then it is your Job to establish scriptural construct in which it is used.
Plus remember when I said your talking past me?/Not reading what I write? I have made several allowances for corperatly lead prayer. This is why your references to acts 2&4 are irrelevant. Acts 1 is irrelevant as nothing in the passage says the diciples where praying in public and at that point had not become a church yet
You’re demanding that I “establish a scriptural construct,” but the construct is already in the text — Scripture itself defines prayer by
motive (seen vs. unseen) and
audience (God vs. spectators), not by
access, which is why Acts 1:14, Acts 2:42, and Acts 4:24 are absolutely relevant: they show believers praying
together without any performative display, proving that your English‑dictionary categories cannot override the NT’s own categories, and your claim that Acts 1 “doesn’t count” because they weren’t yet a church is an artificial rule the text never gives.
acts 2:42: 42 They devoted themselves to the apostles’ teaching and to fellowship, to the breaking of bread and to prayer.
In the above text show me where the passage indicates that the pray these men devoted themselves to was public.
Acts 4:24 So when they heard that, they raised their voice to God with one accord and said: “Lord, You
are God, who made heaven and earth and the sea, and all that is in them,
This is from the NKJV, where does it say they prayed? Verse 25 continues their praises with a Psalm which would be a clear indication they where singing or chanting the psalm.. Which is not a strong indicator of prayer.
Acts
2:42 does not need to
say “public” because Luke uses the phrase
“the prayers” — a technical term in Second‑Temple Judaism for
set, communal prayers (the Shema, the Eighteen Benedictions, temple prayers), not private closet prayer; your claim that “devoted to the prayers” could mean silent, individual prayer ignores the fact that Luke uses the
definite article to point to
established, shared liturgical prayer.
Acts
4:24 explicitly says they “lifted their
voices together to God,” which is the biblical definition of
corporate prayer; the fact that they quote Psalm 2 afterward does not turn the prayer into “singing,” because quoting Scripture inside prayer is normal throughout the Bible (see Neh 9, Dan 9, Jonah 2).
Your argument that Acts 4 is “just praise” collapses because Luke says they
said (εἶπαν), not “sang,” and the entire speech is addressed
to God, not to one another, which is the biblical marker of prayer.
The only reason you deny these are prayers is because your system requires Matthew 6:6 to forbid any audible prayer, so you must redefine clear prayer texts as “not prayer,” but the NT itself shows believers praying aloud together without violating Jesus’ command, proving your interpretation is driven by your categories, not by the text
As previously stated:
Jesus only prayed aloud 6 different times through out the gospels. 3 of those times was from the cross. (meaning He could not go into seclusion) 1 was when He fed the 5000, and another was when He fed the 4000, and at lazarus' tomb for the stated reason of letting people know He was from God.
There are no other instances of Jesus praying publicly. So at the very least you oughta ask WWJD when face with praying publicly, then realize, unless you are on the cross dying for the sins of the world or performing miracles on the level of Christ, then you should humble yourself when you pray by following the directives given by Christ.
I'm 100% ok that Jesus makes rules that do not apply to Him, but applies to us
As I have said so many times already, Your entire argument collapses because you treat Jesus’ rare audible prayers as proof that audible prayer is forbidden for everyone else, but Jesus’
frequency of public prayer is irrelevant — what matters is the
category He Himself gives in John 11:41–42: He prayed aloud “
for their sake,” meaning Scripture defines audible prayer by
motive, not by rarity, location, or miracle‑context. Matthew 6:6 does
not say “pray only in secret,” it says “do not pray
to be seen,” and Jesus’ own audible prayers prove that the command is about
performative prayer, not about forbidding
audible prayer. Your WWJD argument fails because Jesus also prayed
with His disciples present (Luke 9:18),
before meals (Matt 14:19; Matt 15:36),
in Gethsemane within earshot (Matt 26:39–44), and
in public thanksgiving (Luke 10:21), none of which involve miracles or crucifixion. If Matthew 6 meant what you claim, then Jesus violated His own command repeatedly, and the apostles violated it constantly (Acts 1:14; Acts 2:42; Acts 4:24). The NT pattern is clear: prayer is judged by
audience (God vs. spectators) and
motive (humility vs. display), not by
access,
volume, or
visibility, and your interpretation forces Jesus to forbid what He Himself and His apostles openly practiced.
You are not following Jesus' example unless you are bring someone back from the dead, feeding crowds of 1000s or hanging from a cross.
Plus this is another example of you butchering a bible verse to support your own ends. you said:
“I said this on account of the people standing around, that they may believe”
You cut off His explanation on What they where to believe:
42 And I know that You always hear Me, but because of the people who are standing by I said this, that they may believe that You sent Me.”
The "You Sent Me" part takes away your right to claim you are following Jesus' example as God did not send you, like He sent Christ.
Again, Jesus is playing by a different rule set than everyone else. He has every right to tell you to pray in private while He makes exceptions for Himself and His ministry
Your entire rebuttal depends on treating Jesus’ audible prayers as
exceptions tied to miracles or crucifixion, but Jesus Himself tells you the
principle behind His audible prayer — “I said this
for their sake, that they may believe
You sent Me” — which means the text itself defines audible prayer by
motive toward hearers, not by miracle‑context, rarity, or Christ‑uniqueness.
You’re trying to turn “that they may believe You sent Me” into a reason why
His audible prayer cannot teach anything about
ours, but that misses the point: Jesus is explaining
why He prayed aloud, and His explanation is about
audience and motive, the exact categories Matthew 6 addresses.
If Matthew 6 meant what you claim — that all non‑hypocrites must pray only in secret — then Jesus violated His own command every time He prayed audibly, and the apostles violated it constantly (Acts 1:14; Acts 2:42; Acts 4:24).
Your argument that “Jesus can break the rule He gives us” collapses because Matthew 6 is not a
location‑law but a
motive‑law; secrecy is the antidote to hypocrisy, not the essence of prayer.
Jesus is not “making exceptions for Himself”; He is modeling the very principle He taught — prayer aimed at
God, not at
spectators — and the NT shows believers praying aloud together without violating His command, proving that your system is built on
location‑based categories the Bible never uses, instead of the
motive‑based categories Jesus Himself gives.
That's a great sentiment... Now just show some book chapter and verse from the bible that makes this claim, and you are in business... Oh, and make sure that passage also over rides the authority of Jesus, because again it is Jesus telling the non hypocrites to go to their rooms and pray
Matthew
6:6 commands secrecy as the antidote to
performative prayer, not as a universal ban on any prayer spoken where others can hear, and the proof is that the
same Jesus who gave that command also prayed audibly (Luke 10:21; John 11:41–42; Matt 14:19; Matt 26:39–44) and taught a
corporate prayer (“
Our Father,” Matt 6:9).
The apostles then obeyed Him exactly as He intended: they prayed
privately to guard the heart (Mark 1:35) and prayed
together to build unity (Acts 1:14; Acts 2:42; Acts 4:24). These passages do not “override” Jesus.
don't see anything wrong with praying in public. what Jesus was talking about .. He was not talking about Christians. Those that did pray out in the open did it to be seen and heard. You as a believer are righteous because you believe in trust in Jesus Christ.. so praying in the streets or at home.. He GOD always hears you this is written. I don't know the heart here of the pastor.. it may be to get the lost to see to hear.