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Oh yes, of course, everyone wants to think they are on that "straight and narrow" path. But now, how about let's get back to the discussion on Col. 1:15-16 and Rev. 1:8, 1:17, 2:8, 21:6, 22:13 and the terms that are being used interchangeably of the Father and the Son, despite the fact that you...

This is incorrect. In fact, Col. 1:16 gives you the reason why Christ is referred to as "firstborn." Completely lacking from the "reason given" by Paul, is this idea that Christ was "created." You have read your own distorted view into 1:15, but cannot reckon with 1:16. 1:16 is apart of the...

Um, hello? In Rev. 21:6, who is "the Alpha and the Omega, Beginning and End"? The Father. Hold your argument to the same standard. If it means "Beginning" and "End" (as per your explanation above) in one place, then it has to mean it in the other, hence, Rev. 1:8, 22:13.

Just in case you (or anyone) was wondering: My point in bringing up the allusions to Gen. 1 and Ps. 89 in Paul's letter to the Colossians is simple, Paul is here weaving themes from the Genesis mandate to, “subdue and multiply” (Gen. 1:26-28) together with Ps. 89:27. Both texts express...

Paul begins v. 15 by speaking of Jesus’ position as firstborn in the present tense (“He is…”), not as a past mode of existence as what follows in the very next verse (“in Him were all things created”). And as Paul transitions from v. 15 to v. 16, he uses a causal preposition (“because”) to help...

There's a lot more I can add to this, but my purposes for this post was to show some of the intertextual relationships that can and will be used against your interpretation of Col. 1:15. There's quite a bit more detail I can get into.

Actually, you are completely incorrect here. You have totally fudged it. Let me show you a few things: Notice, in 1:6 and 1:10, Paul draws on language taken from Genesis 1: In Col. 1:15, when it refers to Christ as "the image of the invisible God," this draws on Gen. 1:26: And then...

The same account is also recorded in Matt. 24:36, yet, notice what is said in Matt. 11:27: “All things have been handed over to Me by My Father; and no one knows the Son except the Father; nor does anyone know the Father except the Son, and anyone to whom the Son wills to reveal Him.” (Matthew...

Get your hammers ready. I have a feeling there will be idol smashing involved in our future.

I happen to think that the "reference" point may not have been one particular Gospel account at all (though it is possible), but that it very well may have been the Lord Jesus Himself as the "original" source and inspiration. I say that, because in Matthean account (11:10), who is the speaker?

Prong 4: Jn. 1:23 (cf. Isaiah 40:3) and it’s connections to the other Gospel accounts John makes reference to Isaiah 40:3 in Jn. 1:23. The significance of this may get passed over by the casual reader. But notice that Mark (1:2-3) cites the same passage in his Gospel's opening, Here, Mark...

Prong 3: διὰ + genitive That Jn. 1:1-3 communicates personal pre-existence, is demonstrated in more than just a couple ways. Similar to Jn. 1:1, the next verse (1:2) also uses language of intimacy (πρὸς τὸν θεόν), but this then is coupled by a διὰ + genitive construct (1:3). The significance...

Prong 2: Jn. 1:1c In discussions on Christ’s personal pre-existence, Jn. 1:1c may get bypassed or overlooked. But for our purposes, the inspiration behind mentioning it is two-fold: It ties in nicely with where we left off with the former point regarding “equality with God,” while also...

Prong 1: πρὸς τὸν θεόν (John 1:1b) When Jn. 1:1 speaks of the Word existing “with” God, the term used here for “with” is the Greek word πρὸς. When followed by a noun in the accusative case, πρὸς speaks of face-to-face communion, interaction. One does not need to leave the first chapter of John...

I have to be upfront: I am glad(!) you decided to post your remarks on this forum, because this now allows me time to gather my thoughts and put them in written format. I have been festering on these thoughts for a very long time, perhaps even years and really haven’t taken time to express it...

What I think is rather sad is that you use Peter (who filled with the Holy Spirit, wrote 1 Peter) in a depiction of "walking away in shame" as if he didn't believe the very thing you are criticizing. That is what is truly "shameful," and rather "sad." And that is what I mean by "both eyes...

So with both eyes closed. Got it.

*Peter shakes his head and walks away*

You mean the same Peter, as the Peter in Acts? And the same Peter who wrote 1 Peter? In Acts 1:1-7, we are told of an encounter with the post-resurrected Christ. In 1:1-2, the narrator identifies Christ as the one who had “chosen” (or appointed) the apostles to their position. In 1:6-7, that...

Response forthcoming! Will likely have something by tomorrow... grab the glasses while you wait. This is gonna be good.