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The KJV is God's word in English and is without error. However, the Jewish Passover meaning for the word "Easter" is legimate. It is taken from the second definition of the Middle English Dictionary (which covers the years 1100 to 1500). ....

Most of Christianity and Modern scholarship has conditioned people to believe this. So it's not surprising you hold to this view. Any supposed claims of errors in the KJV by the Bible correctors of our day I have explained many times. Generally my apologetics or explanations go ignored...

Here are some problems with the pagan Easter viewpoint on Acts 12:4: I. Ignores the historical usage of the Greek word πάσχα (pascha) (Note: If you think I am wrong, please provide the goods or historical sources that clearly shows otherwise. However, I do not think you will be able to do...

Anyone who has studied the Passover deeply knows that the word "Pascha" can be a reference to a week or to the specific day (Nisan the 14th) (Note: The same is true with the day of unleavened bread with it being Nisan the 15th). Context determines which one is being referred to. Nisan the 14th...

You are a piece of work. I gave you a screen-capture of the MED dictionary showing you that the word "Easter" can mean "Jewish Passover." So the KJV translators did not make a mistake. There are other evidences that show this, as well. But because you have been brainwashed or radicalized or...

I am only slightly frustrated with you because you are showing the same pattern that many in Christianity show: rejecting basic knowledge found in pre-1600s dictionaries and lexicons. Certain believers today even reject basic words in the Bible itself because they have a preconceived, built-in...

@ScooterJackson and to all here who have ears to hear: See my post #822 for the MED definition for Easter. It says it is the Jewish Passover in its second definition. .....

But you would need to demonstrate that fact. Prove that my research that uses AI is all false and is not trustworthy even though I am just pointing you to facts in history. If you can demonstrate that fact rather than you basically saying: "Hey believe my words and I don't have to prove...

The deception had already happened. AI did not need to do anything. People just believe things that are not true without any evidence. Even when evidence is presented, it is rejected. Truly we are living in the last days. Its a problem on both the Modern Bible Movement side, and the...

Do you have children? If such is the case, did you just tell them to learn words from asking the Lord and tell them to never look at a dictionary? Tell them to never go to school and just ask God for the meaning of basic words? Again, this simply sounds like Anti-knowledge and it is insane...

The KJV translators adjusted the Bishop's Bible according to the original languages. They appealed to their use of the original languages as their ultimate source in the KJV preface. So the original languages was their true foundation that they were translating from, and not the Bishops Bible...

Well, there always going to be stupid people who do not ask for links and verify what that info says in the links that are trustworthy from scanned books, etcetera. But there is also deception of people believing made up things that just enter their own minds, too. You have already made claims...

This is insane. Do you just have random thoughts like this all the time and consider them to be facts? There is no historical evidence of King James ever thinking this way or even saying this. To put words or thoughts upon him like this is false slander. Also, did you like not see the...

I got many things right, but I was able to find out in a few minutes or an hour or so things that would have taken me months or even years to find. For example, I asked AI to provide me with non-manuscript archaeological evidence that supports Textus Receptus readings that are not found in the...

No Greek manuscripts read Jupiter in Acts 14:12. If you believe otherwise, then please provide the goods or links to such manuscripts. There are other examples that prove my case beyond all shadow of a doubt on this point, as well. All you have to do is go to page 114, of the PDF, "Is...

Sorry, that's not going to work. You need to establish in some pre-1611 lexicon or pre-1611 English dictionary the KJV translators would have had possible access to in order to establish that fact. Until then, all you have are assumptions in your own mind on what you think the KJV translators...

Well, it can be a mistake if you do not ask it for links for you to verify the truth for yourself with your own two eyes. The problem would only arise if you just blindly believed what it said without any source links that it can give you. As for not using AI: I am sorry, but that is what...

The word Ēostre was not a part of the original inspired Greek text. πάσχα (pascha) is what was in the text and that word has never been used of a pagan festival in history. If you think otherwise, then please supply the historic account of such a thing for this Greek word. This is why folks...

I think everyone who reads the KJV should do two things as a regular practice or ask it to find another source to explain it. All too often, folks just think there are errors in the Bible. Yet, Jesus and His followers did not think that about the Scriptures. #1. The moment you think there is...

Brief Introduction Before examining Acts 14:12, I want to make my own position clear. I believe the standardized King James Bible is without error and is God’s word in English today. My position is best described as “KJV + Its Underlying Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek.” I look to the underlying...