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Some of the many trinitarian sources which admit that the Bible actually describes men who represent God (judges, Israelite kings, etc.) and God's angels as gods include: 1. Young's Analytical Concordance of the Bible, "Hints and Helps...," Eerdmans, 1978 reprint; 2. Strong's Exhaustive...

If we wish to supply more examples, we must include some which are less perfect than these three (or four). The best we can do is to include ALL those constructions (Westcott and Hort text) which comply with the other qualifications above but which, unlike Jn 1:1c, have the subject noun before...

Grammar as used in John 1:1c (continued) There are known exceptions to the use of the article with a nominative noun: “The article … is sometimes missing, especially after prepositions … and with a genitive which depends on an anarthrous noun (especially a predicate noun).” - Blass &...

PT wrote above: One could infer from John’s structure here that the Word was "a god!" and not "the God". But such a reading would not account for the position of the anarthrous predicate theos before its arthrous subject (ho logos, the Word". If John had intended that, he could have used - ...

I would appreciate an in-depth study of John's use of NT Greek grammar as used in John 1:1c.

............................................................................. ASV -Is. 45: 5 I am Jehovah, and there is none else; besides me there is no God. I will gird thee, though thou hast not known me; 6 that they may know from the rising of the sun, and from the west, that there is none...

............................................................................................................... 1 Tim. 3:16 ("God was manifest in the flesh") As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God "manifest in the flesh." Although the KJV translates 1 Tim...

And second, another way competent Bible scholars have interpreted the meaning of this name is with the understanding that it (as with many, if not most, of the other Israelites’ personal names) does not apply directly to the Messiah (as we have already seen with “Elijah,” “Abijah,” etc.) but is...

........................................................................ Is. 9:6 says – “For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given; and the government shall be upon his shoulder; and his name shall be called Wonderful Counsellor, Mighty God, Eternal Father, Prince of Peace.” All...

KJ21 that men may know that Thou, whose name alone is Jehovah, art the Most High over all the earth. ASV That they may know that thou alone, whose name is Jehovah, Art the Most High over all the earth. KJ21 that men may know that Thou, whose name alone is Jehovah, art the Most High over all...

........................................................................ I didn't find the information in your links to show that A or Th persecuted Christians. In fact their being Christian or in Judaism is sketchy, but I would gladly remove my referring to them as Christians if I could...

.................................................................. You have skipped an important portion of the Exodus quote: ASV "And God said moreover unto Moses, Thus shalt thou say unto the children of Israel, Jehovah [YHWH], the God of your fathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac...

.......................................................................... All the other places where ehyeh is used in the the books of Moses are listed below. You will find they always mean "I will be" not "I am," particularly when it is Jehovah speaking about his relationship to his people...

............................................................................ “Now the chief priests and the whole Council kept trying to obtain false testimony against Jesus in order that they might put him to death; .... And the high priest said to him, ‘I adjure you by the living God, that...

...................................................... Some trinitarians claim that Jesus was declaring himself to be Jehovah God because he said “I AM” (ego eimi in the original NT Greek) at John 8:58. Their reasoning goes like this: Exodus 3:14 in some English Bible translations has Jehovah...

.................................................................... 1 Tim. 3:16 ("God was manifest in the flesh") As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God "manifest in the flesh." Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with "God" as above, nearly all other...

............................................................... Trinitarian Professor William Barclay writing in his popular Daily Study Bible Series, The Gospel of John, Vol. 2, The Westminster Press, 1975, pp. 74, 75, 76 says: “Now we come to the supreme claim [of John 10:30]. ‘I and the...

....................................................................... One way competent Bible scholars have interpreted the meaning of this name is with the understanding that it (as with many, if not most, of the other Israelites' personal names) does not apply directly to the owner of that...

.................................................................................................. The Hebrew word yalad means "to bear, bring forth, beget" but it can be used (as the equivalent English word also can) for "cause to be." For example, when God says he "begot"/"fathered" (yalad)...

'Sharp's Rule' Primer In an attempt to prove the trinity doctrine, Granville Sharp made up a rule in 1798. It is often called "Sharp's Rule" by trinitarians. It says, in effect, that when two or more words (nouns) in the original Greek New Testament (NT) text are joined by the word "and," they...