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Sorry. I was about to repeat my post in message #5 before I realized I had posted it previously.

........................................................................................ Jesus prayer to the Father: KJV "And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent."

................................................................................................ 1 Tim. 3:16 ("God was manifest in the flesh") 12 As this is translated in the KJV it makes Paul say that Jesus is God "manifest in the flesh." Although the KJV translates 1 Tim. 3:16 with...

............................................................................................ Titus 2:13 Bible translations old and new: 13 lokynge for that blessed hope and appearynge of the glory of ye greate God and of oure Sauioure Iesu Christ - Coverdale 13 lokynge for þe blessed...

...................................................................... Matt. 6:7 “And when you are praying, do not use meaningless repetition as the Gentiles do, for they suppose that they will be heard for their many words. 8 So do not be like them; for your Father knows what you need before...

...................................................................... Of most importance is the fact of what John called the Word. And my studies on the grammar (syntax) of John 1:1c as used by John prove that he intended "a god" there. If you refuse (or are unable) to read one of them...

Are you really unable to understand it? Some of these trinitarian sources which admit that the Bible actually describes men who represent God (judges, Israelite kings, etc.) and God's angels as gods include: 1. Young's Analytical Concordance of the Bible, "Hints and Helps...," Eerdmans, 1978...

................................................................ The NIV Study Bible, Zondervan, 1985 clearly recognizes the truth about the lesser meaning of theos and elohim ('a god'): "In the language of the OT ... rulers and judges, as deputies of the heavenly King, could be given the...

............................................... "... the Bible actually describes men who represent God (judges, Israelite kings, etc.) and God's angels as gods..." You tell me: true gods or false gods? Or is that the only choice?

I'm sorry that you won't read evidence provided for you. For example, the footnote for part two above shows some of the many trinitarian scholars who admit that good men. and angels were called gods.

............................................................................ John 17:1, 3.

There are two more parts but I know no one will read any of it (as usual), so I'll stop here.

Part Five John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): The above lessons show that word order (predicate noun before the verb as found in the NT Greek of John 1:1c) does not change the meaning to an understood article (“the”) as Colwell’s Rule suggests or to some nebulous ‘qualitative’ meaning as some other...

Part Four John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): It’s been many years since I looked up all the clauses in John’s writing which had predicate nouns (also called predicate nominatives). Then I made a list of all of them which are parallel to John 1:1c (predicate noun coming before the verb). I didn’t...

Part Three John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): But, you may ask, Isn’t there a significance to the reversed word order in the Greek (‘god was the word’) which is, in English, ‘the word was god.’? If you will examine a good NT interlinear, you will find that word order is basically meaningless. NT...

Part Two: John 1:1 in NT Greek (cont.): The next step in finding John’s intended meaning of John 1:1c is to look up the meanings of theos in a good NT lexicon. Numerous Trinitarian scholars [see footnote] admit that this word was also used for angels, kings, and God-appointed men such as...

.............................................. Is my link not working? I'll try another study of the same thing: how John intended theos to be understood at Jn 1:1c by examining all the places he has used the same grammar. Part One: John 1:1 in NT Greek: Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ...

.......................................................... Is that what my personal study said? What would be the grammatical evidence for such an understanding?

From my personal study: http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2009/09/john-11c-primer_21.html

.................................................................................... I know that the first verse (John 11:1) is purposely mistranslated by nearly all trinitarian Bible translators.