Moving on to 1 John 1:8 now...
1 John 1:8 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. 9If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
John continues with saying why they need the cleansing blood of Jesus, I stated earlier I believe the focus of this is not just in past sins, but also effectual cleansing of sin, that will manifest light, which John explains later in his letter (we are purified as He is pure). But the key to me in verse 8 is seeing John saying "the truth is not in us". This is exactly the same phrase John uses in verse 6 about walking in darkness. Also notice in verse 6, John says "we lie" if we say... In verse 8, John says "we deceive" ourselves, in essence "we lie to ourselves"...
So in my opinion verse 6 and verse 8 are identical in composition.
v6 "We lie and we do not practice the truth"
v8 "We deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us"
We know John believes believers don't walk in darkness because John says they don't in this letter. So in my opinion v8 is talking about unbelievers as well.
In my opinion, the crux of v8 is this: If we say we don't need to be cleansed with the blood of Jesus, the truth is not in us. We are not saved.
1 John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
But, if we confess our sins (confess we HAVE sins), He is faithful to forgive us and cleanse us from all unrighteousness. John in verse 7 uses this same idea for believers, "His blood cleanses us from all sin" and in verse 9 we see, "if we confess we are cleansed from all unrighteousness".
In my opinion the crux of this letter is still driving people into understanding that they need to have fellowship with God. And now John is explaining they need the blood of Jesus to walk this fellowship out.
And John repeats the same idea for good measure:
1 John 1:10 If we say we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.
John once again says, if we say we have not sinned, we make Him a liar. And we don't know His word. When did we make Him a liar? I think this is the key to understanding this verse.
Romans 3:23 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction: 23for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God’s righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins.
We make Him a liar, if we say we do not have sin. Why? Because in His Word He has said "all have sinned". And "all have fallen short of the glory of God". This is pointing us to the reality of not having Christ. It is shutting us up in sin. And if we say we have no sin, the Word is not in us. And we make Him a liar.
Now comes 1 John 2, addressed directly to the children of God.
1 John 2:1 My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. 2He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.
1 John 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.
And John from this point, explains how we should walk in Him, which is loving one another.
So is John giving us the gospel in 1 John 1?
Here's a few Scriptures that use a similar phrase that 1 John 1 uses of "proclaim this message" referring to preaching the gospel...
"Proclaim message":
2 Tim 4:17 But the Lord stood by me and strengthened me, so that through me the message might be fully proclaimed and all the Gentiles might hear it.
Matt 10:7 (NIV) As you go, proclaim this message: 'The kingdom of heaven has come near.'
Matthew 24:24 And this gospel of the kingdom will be proclaimed throughout the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come.
That's a fairly quick explanation of why I believe 1 John 1 is actually referring to the gospel we have been given.
1 John 1:8 If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us. 9If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
John continues with saying why they need the cleansing blood of Jesus, I stated earlier I believe the focus of this is not just in past sins, but also effectual cleansing of sin, that will manifest light, which John explains later in his letter (we are purified as He is pure). But the key to me in verse 8 is seeing John saying "the truth is not in us". This is exactly the same phrase John uses in verse 6 about walking in darkness. Also notice in verse 6, John says "we lie" if we say... In verse 8, John says "we deceive" ourselves, in essence "we lie to ourselves"...
So in my opinion verse 6 and verse 8 are identical in composition.
v6 "We lie and we do not practice the truth"
v8 "We deceive ourselves and the truth is not in us"
We know John believes believers don't walk in darkness because John says they don't in this letter. So in my opinion v8 is talking about unbelievers as well.
In my opinion, the crux of v8 is this: If we say we don't need to be cleansed with the blood of Jesus, the truth is not in us. We are not saved.
1 John 1:9 If we confess our sins, he is faithful and just to forgive us our sins and to cleanse us from all unrighteousness.
But, if we confess our sins (confess we HAVE sins), He is faithful to forgive us and cleanse us from all unrighteousness. John in verse 7 uses this same idea for believers, "His blood cleanses us from all sin" and in verse 9 we see, "if we confess we are cleansed from all unrighteousness".
In my opinion the crux of this letter is still driving people into understanding that they need to have fellowship with God. And now John is explaining they need the blood of Jesus to walk this fellowship out.
And John repeats the same idea for good measure:
1 John 1:10 If we say we have not sinned, we make him a liar, and his word is not in us.
John once again says, if we say we have not sinned, we make Him a liar. And we don't know His word. When did we make Him a liar? I think this is the key to understanding this verse.
Romans 3:23 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction: 23for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God, 24and are justified by his grace as a gift, through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus, 25whom God put forward as a propitiation by his blood, to be received by faith. This was to show God’s righteousness, because in his divine forbearance he had passed over former sins.
We make Him a liar, if we say we do not have sin. Why? Because in His Word He has said "all have sinned". And "all have fallen short of the glory of God". This is pointing us to the reality of not having Christ. It is shutting us up in sin. And if we say we have no sin, the Word is not in us. And we make Him a liar.
Now comes 1 John 2, addressed directly to the children of God.
1 John 2:1 My little children, I am writing these things to you so that you may not sin. But if anyone does sin, we have an advocate with the Father, Jesus Christ the righteous. 2He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.
1 John 2:2 He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.
And John from this point, explains how we should walk in Him, which is loving one another.
So is John giving us the gospel in 1 John 1?
Here's a few Scriptures that use a similar phrase that 1 John 1 uses of "proclaim this message" referring to preaching the gospel...
"Proclaim message":
2 Tim 4:17 But the Lord stood by me and strengthened me, so that through me the message might be fully proclaimed and all the Gentiles might hear it.
Matt 10:7 (NIV) As you go, proclaim this message: 'The kingdom of heaven has come near.'
Matthew 24:24 And this gospel of the kingdom will be proclaimed throughout the whole world as a testimony to all nations, and then the end will come.
That's a fairly quick explanation of why I believe 1 John 1 is actually referring to the gospel we have been given.