Bibles, bibles, everywhere!

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serpentslayer

Banned
#1
May 25, 2010
373
1
0
#1
In order for GOD to be able to have a means of judging us, it was
necessary that HE provide us with the TRUTH, HIS HOLY WORD,
because there is no sin, where there is no law (ROM). Furthermore,
HIS WORD had to be complete and without flaw in all doctrines and
judgments, so none could claim to be ignorant or uninformed or
mislead. As such, and because there are many bibles which are in
disagreement, it must be the case that not all bibles are the TRUE
WORD of GOD, but there has to be at least ONE.


It is not hard to make a list of the bibles which could 'fill the bill',
because one only need consider those who have stood the test of
time, meaning they have been around for centuries: for in no way
can any modern bible be the only true bible, else all those who lived
and died before that bible was published could in no way know the
TRUTH. For me, it is the KJV only; but, if there is another, it cannot
have one pont of doctrine different then the KJV. (Challenge: how many bibles absolutely agree in context with the KJV in the first sentence only: In the Beginning GOD created the Heaven (singular) and the earth. Your list will be very short!!!!!!!!)


Now, if one believes the Promise GOD gave to Abraham, that from his
loins would come many nations (literally); and one understands how
the Nation of Israel was comprised of two 'houses', the house of
Judah (Judah was the first Jew) and the house of Israel, and,
eventhough GOD divorced the latter and scattered them, HE promised
to bring them all back together again; and one understands that it was
JESUS's main mission was to redeem those GOD divorced (and by
them would the Gentiles be grafted in); then one might well
understand that the 'new tongue' (language) Isaiah prophesied the
LORD would talk to these people (the scattered) with, is English (IS
28:10)!


The blessing Israel gave before he died (GEN 29) clearly tells how Joseph (father to Mannaseh and Ephraim, the USA and British Empire, respectively) was to receive the greatest blessing. God made us strong, and blessed us with everything; the archers grieve because they cannot touch us (surrounded by water)
 
P

prophecyman

Guest
#2
#2
A HISTORY LESSON: In the late 4th century Jerome translated the original languages (Heb. & Gk) into the old Latin, this translation is known as the Latin vulgate. The term Vulgate is from the latin 'vulgare' which means 'common'.

So in a matter of speaking it was a translation in the common language, and the concept was to make this translation universal so that all people may better understand the word of God. The Latin Vulgate was the primary translation for better than 1000 years.

Before the year 300 A.D. there was about 500 translations of the bible in many languages, and many of those were destroyed so very utterly that we have no record of them other than passing mention through historical references.

So why did this happen? Because the concept at the time was that it was Latin only, sound familiar?

So what can we learn from this? Firstly it needs to be understood that languages undergo changes and difinitions of meaning through processes that are natural in the development of language in any culture.

Example: 1 Pet. 1:15 But as he which hath called you is holy, so be ye holy in all manner of conversation.

So here is the question... conversation in modern English means discussion, so what do you suppose Peter really meant? Let the prophecyman help you by translating this verse for you...

But as he who has called you is holy, so be holy in all matters of lifestyle.

The word conversation meant style of living and not the content of speech! The meaning has change through the process of 400 years, and so there is other examples through the kings language (KJV) that has changed as well. This is why people like William Tyndale saw the need to translate the bible from the original languages into the common English tongue so that even a lowly plow boy may understand the scriptures better than the pope in Rome.

85% of the current English bible is not the work of the translators, but is the work of William Tyndale, Miles Coverdale helped complete the English translation based on Tyndales work. The first English New Testament was completed in 1525, and with the exception of some spelling, there is really no difference.

The first Authorized English translation was by King Henry V111 and was known as the Great Bible, he so ordered that a copy was to be placed in all churches throughout his realm this was in 1537, it was only one year prior that William Tyndale made this prayer before his execution... LORD open the King of Englands eyes!
 
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Hisservant

Banned
#3
Apr 11, 2012
52
0
0
#3
Does it really matter when every bible states in one way or another that eternal life is NOT found within their pages?
 
S

serpentslayer

Banned
#4
May 25, 2010
373
1
0
#4
prophecyman said:
A HISTORY LESSON: In the late 4th century Jerome translated the original languages (Heb. & Gk) into the old Latin, this translation is known as the Latin vulgate. The term Vulgate is from the latin 'vulgare' which means 'common'.

So in a matter of speaking it was a translation in the common language, and the concept was to make this translation universal so that all people may better understand the word of God. The Latin Vulgate was the primary translation for better than 1000 years.

Before the year 300 A.D. there was about 500 translations of the bible in many languages, and many of those were destroyed so very utterly that we have no record of them other than passing mention through historical references.

So why did this happen? Because the concept at the time was that it was Latin only, sound familiar?

So what can we learn from this? Firstly it needs to be understood that languages undergo changes and difinitions of meaning through processes that are natural in the development of language in any culture.

Example: 1 Pet. 1:15 But as he which hath called you is holy, so be ye holy in all manner of conversation.

So here is the question... conversation in modern English means discussion, so what do you suppose Peter really meant? Let the prophecyman help you by translating this verse for you...

But as he who has called you is holy, so be holy in all matters of lifestyle.

The word conversation meant style of living and not the content of speech! The meaning has change through the process of 400 years, and so there is other examples through the kings language (KJV) that has changed as well. This is why people like William Tyndale saw the need to translate the bible from the original languages into the common English tongue so that even a lowly plow boy may understand the scriptures better than the pope in Rome.

85% of the current English bible is not the work of the translators, but is the work of William Tyndale, Miles Coverdale helped complete the English translation based on Tyndales work. The first English New Testament was completed in 1525, and with the exception of some spelling, there is really no difference.

The first Authorized English translation was by King Henry V111 and was known as the Great Bible, he so ordered that a copy was to be placed in all churches throughout his realm this was in 1537, it was only one year prior that William Tyndale made this prayer before his execution... LORD open the King of Englands eyes!
Click to expand...
You are ignorant of the things you talk about, or a serpent one; especially concerning bible history! Dec 2011 National Geographic's article on the KJV begs to differ with you.

The KJV was written in the language of the common people. so that even the most vulgar of people could understand it (art. above).

Latin could not have been the 'tongue' Isaiah spoke of since the romans (from whom latin comes) are not of Israel.

Those bibles that perished (if any really existed), probably don't exist because they were worthy to exist. Who could thwarp GOD's Plan? NO ONE.
 
T

Tombo

Guest
#5
#5
serpentslayer said:
You are ignorant of the things you talk about, or a serpent one; especially concerning bible history! Dec 2011 National Geographic's article on the KJV begs to differ with you.

The KJV was written in the language of the common people. so that even the most vulgar of people could understand it (art. above).

Latin could not have been the 'tongue' Isaiah spoke of since the romans (from whom latin comes) are not of Israel.

Those bibles that perished (if any really existed), probably don't exist because they were worthy to exist. Who could thwarp GOD's Plan? NO ONE.
Click to expand...
The Bible was originally written in Hebrew and Greek, not English. English wasn't even a language in existence then. I think you need to do some study on this before you speak any further.

Tom
 
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prophecyman

Guest
#6
#6
serpentslayer said:
You are ignorant of the things you talk about, or a serpent one; especially concerning bible history! Dec 2011 National Geographic's article on the KJV begs to differ with you.

The KJV was written in the language of the common people. so that even the most vulgar of people could understand it (art. above).

Latin could not have been the 'tongue' Isaiah spoke of since the romans (from whom latin comes) are not of Israel.

Those bibles that perished (if any really existed), probably don't exist because they were worthy to exist. Who could thwarp GOD's Plan? NO ONE.
Click to expand...

have you not heard of the Hexpala of the six former English translations from 1380-1611?

I have before me a copy of Robert Stephens 1551 Greek text that was the same text used by the translators of 1611, and believe me there are differences. The Greek text used by Tyndale was that of the work of Erasmus 1516.

Both Tyndale and Martin Luther used this text to translate. The text was a compilation of six rather late period Greek text, dating from the late 10th century to the early 14th. This is known as the Byzatine text.

Before 1881 all biblical text was derived from the Byzatine, It was the introduction of the Alexandrian text that gave rise to all modern translations, the Alexandrian text dates from the second century.

But to end this argument, let me say that only the ancient Hebrew scriptures are very reliable, this is due to the extreme methods that were utilized in order to preserve the Holy Word of YHVH
 
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