A
Let me first begin by simply stating: I in NO WAY, shape or form, question "The Holy Bible," as to its being an inspired work of God, or even as John wrote in the original Greek text, "GOD-breathed."
The thing that I am questioning here is this: as I progress further and further through seminary, I am finding more and more questions arise, especially as we get more in depth with the original context, audience, and language used in the scriptures. The more I study, the more I find vast errs in (especially but not limited to) modern translations of "The Bible," namely the NLT and NIV versions, which aren't even considered acceptable for seminary classes.
In yesterday's main lecture we focused on the belief of canonicity. This is a belief pushed by the church which requires its attending members to have faith in the fact that the current incarnation of The Bible, is in fact and in whole the ONLY works, inspired in truth, by God, and the faith that the "Holy forefather's of the church were guided solely by the hand of the Holy Spirit in their selection," of the 66 books presented today as the Word of God. It is that latter half I am having trouble with. It seems whenever MAN puts his hands into that which is GOD's, things get messed up. Knowing that even as far back as the KJV and St. Joseph's Version, which greatly predate the NIV and NLT (and which these newer versions are re-translated from), there were great inaccuracies already present.
I happened to inherit 2 intriguing Bibles from family members that have passed on. One was from my great grandmother Min, who left me a St. Joseph's Version of the Bible, printed in 1896, translated in 1568, and it contains a 73 book canon which included Tobit, Judith, 1st & 2nd Maccabees, Songs, Esdras, and Baruch. Then there is my granduncle Paul's King James Bible, that has 70 books in its canon which included the book of Enoch, 1st & 2nd Maccabees, and Gospel of Mary. The above mentioned books are from the Apocrypha, Vulgate, Pseudopigrapha, Protocanonical, Septuagint, and other Deuterocanonical scriptures that were later removed from the Bible, most typically circa 1960's, as a whole, but appeared in whole or in part in many "Bibles" up until that point.
My major questioning of this act comes from the concept that many (and various) quotes and teachings used in New Testament scriptures that cite passages from the Book of Enoch (more than other noncanonical texts). Things like:
Matthew 5:5 - Enoch 5:7, 6:9
Matthew 19:28 - Enoch 105:26, 108:12
Matthew 19:29 - Enoch 40:9
Matthew 26:24 - Enoch 38:2
Luke 6:24 - Enoch 93:7, 94:8
Luke 16:26 - Enoch 22:9-12
John 4:14 - Enoch 48:1
John 5:22 - Enoch 68:39, 69:27
John 12:36 - Enoch 105:25, 108:11
John 14:1 - Enoch 45:3
Jude 1:14-15 - Enoch 1:9, 2:1
Also various quotes from Paul in his letters... Not to mention many other noncanonical quotes throughout the NT, as well as many other teachings, verses, or ideas that are cited in the Bible from some noncanonical teachings, as well as citation of books no longer present (allegedly destroyed, lost/missing) from the Bible. Like:
The Book of Jasher: referenced in Joshua 10:13 and 2 Samuel 1:18
The Book of the Wars of the Lord is referenced at Numbers 21:14.
The Chronicles of the Kings of Israel and Chronicles of the Kings of Judah are mentioned in the Books of Kings (1 Kings 14:19, 14:29). They are said to tell of events during the reigns of Kings Jeroboam of Israel and Rehoboam of Judah, respectively. The Chronicles of the Kings of Israel is again mentioned in 1 Kings 16:20 regarding King Zimri, and throughout 1 and 2 Kings.
The Book of Shemaiah the prophet, and of Iddo the Seer is mentioned in the book of 2nd Chronicles. (2 Chronicles 9:29, 12:15, 13:22). Iddo was a prophet who lived during the reign of kings Solomon, Rehoboam, and Abijah. Zechariah was also the son of Iddo (Ezra 5:1, Zechariah 1:1)
One of the other BIG things I have noticed is that in Isaiah 14, you have an ancient Hebrew text, but then suddenly there appears some lines of Latin in the mix. Isaiah was alleged to have been written 740-687BC when Latin wasn't recorded in use until the 1st-2nd centuries AD (CE). How can this escape scrutiny?
When the untouched Hebrew text is read it speaks of a Babylonian King Halel ben Shahah (who obviously God had found favor in but then he fell from grace because of his interactions with pagan gods and lawlessness and began persecuting God's people, thus the morning star reference, to say something bright in the sky but not the brightest, and fades with the light of day) but then in Latin (from translation rendered by St. Jerome) it refers to Venus, being Luicfer, and translated as the devil being cast out of heaven. Talk about a little confusion.
Some of these texts have been destroyed by the church altogether as blasphemies, but under what authority? They claim God's, but does this mean that the clouds parted and an angel of the Lord descended from heaven and commanded the forefathers to do this? If so, why was it not written about? Where are the witnesses to this event?
SO... My question, does anyone else out there suffer from the doubt, NOT that the Holy Spirit guided wrong, but that maybe another spirit could have intervened with the reformists and forefathers to alter the scriptures? (This in no way should detract from the divinity of the Word as a whole; but from the erroneous scribblings of lesser educated men in perilous times.)
I mean are they not human after all? They are not prophesied about in the Bible anywhere, so it wasn't like some predestined Biblical plan or anything. People seem to accept this due to tradition, but then those same people ridicule the Mormons with the Prophet Joe Smith story. I mean is this any different really? It is the adding to or taking away from God's Holy Word is it not?
It would seem, as this is taught in seminary, that the church leaders are all educated in this, therefore they know, but yet it is not taught from the pulpit. Why?
I do NOT in any way mean to mislead, but I encourage everyone to seek the wisdom and guidance of God when reading the Word of God. The Holy Spirit IS the great translator, and Jesus promised the Holy Spirit is with us all, lets not take this for granted!
Is it wrong for me to question the translations rendered by our church forefathers, if my intention is to truly discover the Word of God?
It seems that the church demands that I accept, in faith, that their translations are correct no matter how far from the original text they may be. Personally, I fear I cannot accept this. Just as I cannot accept the idea of someone today, deleting and rewriting the words of Jesus, 2 thousand years after they were spoken, as if that person was there and claims, "no he didn't say that."
Does anyone here think I should "throw in the towel," on my desire to become a pastor, when I cannot accept the most basic of church "faith" requirements? I mean I believe everyone deserves the truth, and if we cannot receive the truth about God in the place that SHOULD be a beacon of that truth, then where does that leave me?
I have abundant Faith in God, Faith in Jesus' sacrifice, Faith in God's Holy Spirit, Faith in God's Holy Word, Faith in God's Commands, but I lack faith in the modern incarnation of the church, and to the accuracy of its "translations," rendered to God's Holy Word... Does that make me a fail case for a pastor?
The thing that I am questioning here is this: as I progress further and further through seminary, I am finding more and more questions arise, especially as we get more in depth with the original context, audience, and language used in the scriptures. The more I study, the more I find vast errs in (especially but not limited to) modern translations of "The Bible," namely the NLT and NIV versions, which aren't even considered acceptable for seminary classes.
In yesterday's main lecture we focused on the belief of canonicity. This is a belief pushed by the church which requires its attending members to have faith in the fact that the current incarnation of The Bible, is in fact and in whole the ONLY works, inspired in truth, by God, and the faith that the "Holy forefather's of the church were guided solely by the hand of the Holy Spirit in their selection," of the 66 books presented today as the Word of God. It is that latter half I am having trouble with. It seems whenever MAN puts his hands into that which is GOD's, things get messed up. Knowing that even as far back as the KJV and St. Joseph's Version, which greatly predate the NIV and NLT (and which these newer versions are re-translated from), there were great inaccuracies already present.
I happened to inherit 2 intriguing Bibles from family members that have passed on. One was from my great grandmother Min, who left me a St. Joseph's Version of the Bible, printed in 1896, translated in 1568, and it contains a 73 book canon which included Tobit, Judith, 1st & 2nd Maccabees, Songs, Esdras, and Baruch. Then there is my granduncle Paul's King James Bible, that has 70 books in its canon which included the book of Enoch, 1st & 2nd Maccabees, and Gospel of Mary. The above mentioned books are from the Apocrypha, Vulgate, Pseudopigrapha, Protocanonical, Septuagint, and other Deuterocanonical scriptures that were later removed from the Bible, most typically circa 1960's, as a whole, but appeared in whole or in part in many "Bibles" up until that point.
My major questioning of this act comes from the concept that many (and various) quotes and teachings used in New Testament scriptures that cite passages from the Book of Enoch (more than other noncanonical texts). Things like:
Matthew 5:5 - Enoch 5:7, 6:9
Matthew 19:28 - Enoch 105:26, 108:12
Matthew 19:29 - Enoch 40:9
Matthew 26:24 - Enoch 38:2
Luke 6:24 - Enoch 93:7, 94:8
Luke 16:26 - Enoch 22:9-12
John 4:14 - Enoch 48:1
John 5:22 - Enoch 68:39, 69:27
John 12:36 - Enoch 105:25, 108:11
John 14:1 - Enoch 45:3
Jude 1:14-15 - Enoch 1:9, 2:1
Also various quotes from Paul in his letters... Not to mention many other noncanonical quotes throughout the NT, as well as many other teachings, verses, or ideas that are cited in the Bible from some noncanonical teachings, as well as citation of books no longer present (allegedly destroyed, lost/missing) from the Bible. Like:
The Book of Jasher: referenced in Joshua 10:13 and 2 Samuel 1:18
The Book of the Wars of the Lord is referenced at Numbers 21:14.
The Chronicles of the Kings of Israel and Chronicles of the Kings of Judah are mentioned in the Books of Kings (1 Kings 14:19, 14:29). They are said to tell of events during the reigns of Kings Jeroboam of Israel and Rehoboam of Judah, respectively. The Chronicles of the Kings of Israel is again mentioned in 1 Kings 16:20 regarding King Zimri, and throughout 1 and 2 Kings.
The Book of Shemaiah the prophet, and of Iddo the Seer is mentioned in the book of 2nd Chronicles. (2 Chronicles 9:29, 12:15, 13:22). Iddo was a prophet who lived during the reign of kings Solomon, Rehoboam, and Abijah. Zechariah was also the son of Iddo (Ezra 5:1, Zechariah 1:1)
One of the other BIG things I have noticed is that in Isaiah 14, you have an ancient Hebrew text, but then suddenly there appears some lines of Latin in the mix. Isaiah was alleged to have been written 740-687BC when Latin wasn't recorded in use until the 1st-2nd centuries AD (CE). How can this escape scrutiny?
When the untouched Hebrew text is read it speaks of a Babylonian King Halel ben Shahah (who obviously God had found favor in but then he fell from grace because of his interactions with pagan gods and lawlessness and began persecuting God's people, thus the morning star reference, to say something bright in the sky but not the brightest, and fades with the light of day) but then in Latin (from translation rendered by St. Jerome) it refers to Venus, being Luicfer, and translated as the devil being cast out of heaven. Talk about a little confusion.
Some of these texts have been destroyed by the church altogether as blasphemies, but under what authority? They claim God's, but does this mean that the clouds parted and an angel of the Lord descended from heaven and commanded the forefathers to do this? If so, why was it not written about? Where are the witnesses to this event?
SO... My question, does anyone else out there suffer from the doubt, NOT that the Holy Spirit guided wrong, but that maybe another spirit could have intervened with the reformists and forefathers to alter the scriptures? (This in no way should detract from the divinity of the Word as a whole; but from the erroneous scribblings of lesser educated men in perilous times.)
I mean are they not human after all? They are not prophesied about in the Bible anywhere, so it wasn't like some predestined Biblical plan or anything. People seem to accept this due to tradition, but then those same people ridicule the Mormons with the Prophet Joe Smith story. I mean is this any different really? It is the adding to or taking away from God's Holy Word is it not?
It would seem, as this is taught in seminary, that the church leaders are all educated in this, therefore they know, but yet it is not taught from the pulpit. Why?
I do NOT in any way mean to mislead, but I encourage everyone to seek the wisdom and guidance of God when reading the Word of God. The Holy Spirit IS the great translator, and Jesus promised the Holy Spirit is with us all, lets not take this for granted!
Is it wrong for me to question the translations rendered by our church forefathers, if my intention is to truly discover the Word of God?
It seems that the church demands that I accept, in faith, that their translations are correct no matter how far from the original text they may be. Personally, I fear I cannot accept this. Just as I cannot accept the idea of someone today, deleting and rewriting the words of Jesus, 2 thousand years after they were spoken, as if that person was there and claims, "no he didn't say that."
Does anyone here think I should "throw in the towel," on my desire to become a pastor, when I cannot accept the most basic of church "faith" requirements? I mean I believe everyone deserves the truth, and if we cannot receive the truth about God in the place that SHOULD be a beacon of that truth, then where does that leave me?
I have abundant Faith in God, Faith in Jesus' sacrifice, Faith in God's Holy Spirit, Faith in God's Holy Word, Faith in God's Commands, but I lack faith in the modern incarnation of the church, and to the accuracy of its "translations," rendered to God's Holy Word... Does that make me a fail case for a pastor?