How did God judge before the law was given to Moses

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GM777

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#1
I've learned recently that the law was given to make clear to man what sin is and the gravity of sin along with the facts that none are righteous before God, not one as all have fallen short of His glory, and that man cannot possibly keep the law or go it alone. Is this accurate?

Also, how did God judge those who failed to keep the law? I know they had to offer sacrifices to atone for their sins before the ultimate sacrifice, right? Did He count their belief in the coming savior as righteousness as he counted Abraham righteous for his faith?

Lastly, what about those before the law who didn't know sin, as sin is not imputed when there is no law. Was there a time when God was more lenient? How were those people judged?

Thank you all, and thank you for your continued help and shared wisdom
 
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