Bible study tips by: Myles Coverdale, Bible theologian/translator:
When dissecting any verse of scripture. Ask yourself, of whom, to whom, with what words, what time, where, to what intent, with what circumstances, considering what is written before & what follows any single verse context.
Parsing Romans chapter 3:
So, ask: Who's writing? Paul, Rom 1:1
Written to whom? NT believer's in Christ's sin payment & resurrection. Rom 1:7
What are the circumstances? NT believers mixing righteousness via self participation in Mosaic law keeping vs righteousness via faith in Christ's sin atoning death, burial & resurrection
What’s the context BEFORE? God, faith, righteousness/unrighteousness, jew/gentile, justification, law.
What's the context after? Christ's, Righteousness imputed via Faith. Rom Chapter 4
Taking one verse out of context often leads to doctrinal misinterpretations.
Rom 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
I'll begin the parsing text here:
20 By the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
(MY NOTE: No one will be justified = judicially declared righteous by a sovereign God. Thru any self works)
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
(MY NOTE: The righteousness of God is now establish without any deeds required via Mosaic law)
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
(MY NOTE: The righteousness of God is established by the obedient faith "OF" Jesus Christ & is imputed to all them that believe in His sin atoning work)
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
(MY NOTE: Justified FREELY via God's grace, thru faith placed in Christ's sin redemptive work, one becomes justified = Judicially declared righteous by a sovereign God.)
25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
(MY NOTE: Propitiation = reconciliation/atonement/appease/satisfy. Christ's righteousness sin atoning work is declared to be sins propitiation/atonement/appeasement. And His righteousness is imputed onto believers via faith in his death, burial & resurrection)
26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
(MY NOTE: This verse declares the righteousness of Jesus & proclaims Him as the justifier of those who: believe/have faith in Him > His sin payment & resurrection. Not those that follow/keep Mosaic law)
27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
(MY NOTE: Here is a KEY verse! By what law? By the: "Law of FAITH")
28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
(MY NOTE: Man is justified = judicially declared righteous by a sovereign God > = by FAITH without the deeds Mosaic law required).
29 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
(MY NOTE: He's God of BOTH, Jew & Gentile)
30 Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.
(MY NOTE: God justifies = Declared righteous, "BOTH the circumcision = JEW", "by/through "FAITH". "And the uncircumcision = GENTILES through/by "FAITH")
31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
(MY NOTE: If you'll read verse 31 in context. And reread vs 27, its the new covenant, "LAW of FAITH", that's being established.)
When dissecting any verse of scripture. Ask yourself, of whom, to whom, with what words, what time, where, to what intent, with what circumstances, considering what is written before & what follows any single verse context.
Parsing Romans chapter 3:
So, ask: Who's writing? Paul, Rom 1:1
Written to whom? NT believer's in Christ's sin payment & resurrection. Rom 1:7
What are the circumstances? NT believers mixing righteousness via self participation in Mosaic law keeping vs righteousness via faith in Christ's sin atoning death, burial & resurrection
What’s the context BEFORE? God, faith, righteousness/unrighteousness, jew/gentile, justification, law.
What's the context after? Christ's, Righteousness imputed via Faith. Rom Chapter 4
Taking one verse out of context often leads to doctrinal misinterpretations.
Rom 3:31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
I'll begin the parsing text here:
20 By the deeds of the law there shall no flesh be justified in his sight: for by the law is the knowledge of sin.
(MY NOTE: No one will be justified = judicially declared righteous by a sovereign God. Thru any self works)
21 But now the righteousness of God without the law is manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;
(MY NOTE: The righteousness of God is now establish without any deeds required via Mosaic law)
22 Even the righteousness of God which is by faith of Jesus Christ unto all and upon all them that believe: for there is no difference:
(MY NOTE: The righteousness of God is established by the obedient faith "OF" Jesus Christ & is imputed to all them that believe in His sin atoning work)
23 For all have sinned, and come short of the glory of God;
24 Being justified freely by his grace through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus:
(MY NOTE: Justified FREELY via God's grace, thru faith placed in Christ's sin redemptive work, one becomes justified = Judicially declared righteous by a sovereign God.)
25 Whom God hath set forth to be a propitiation through faith in his blood, to declare his righteousness for the remission of sins that are past, through the forbearance of God;
(MY NOTE: Propitiation = reconciliation/atonement/appease/satisfy. Christ's righteousness sin atoning work is declared to be sins propitiation/atonement/appeasement. And His righteousness is imputed onto believers via faith in his death, burial & resurrection)
26 To declare, I say, at this time his righteousness: that he might be just, and the justifier of him which believeth in Jesus.
(MY NOTE: This verse declares the righteousness of Jesus & proclaims Him as the justifier of those who: believe/have faith in Him > His sin payment & resurrection. Not those that follow/keep Mosaic law)
27 Where is boasting then? It is excluded. By what law? of works? Nay: but by the law of faith.
(MY NOTE: Here is a KEY verse! By what law? By the: "Law of FAITH")
28 Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law.
(MY NOTE: Man is justified = judicially declared righteous by a sovereign God > = by FAITH without the deeds Mosaic law required).
29 Is he the God of the Jews only? is he not also of the Gentiles? Yes, of the Gentiles also:
(MY NOTE: He's God of BOTH, Jew & Gentile)
30 Seeing it is one God, which shall justify the circumcision by faith, and uncircumcision through faith.
(MY NOTE: God justifies = Declared righteous, "BOTH the circumcision = JEW", "by/through "FAITH". "And the uncircumcision = GENTILES through/by "FAITH")
31 Do we then make void the law through faith? God forbid: yea, we establish the law.
(MY NOTE: If you'll read verse 31 in context. And reread vs 27, its the new covenant, "LAW of FAITH", that's being established.)