Spiritual Laws

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K

Kyouken

Guest
#1
#1
I've been wondering - have spiritual laws (for example Romans 8:28) always been in existence, or did the existence of the spiritual law begin when it was spoken by God (i.e. God told it to whoever wrote the book it was in)?

I know that Adam and Eve weren't bound by the Law considering God hadn't created it, and I'm wondering if that same logic applies to the question above.

I've begun reading the book of Job again, and I've wondered if it was accurate to apply Romans 8:28. More specifically, the only reason I had questioned whether or not one could apply Romans 8:28 was because it was in the New Testament...

Thoughts? Opinions?
 
2knowhim

2knowhim

Banned
#2
Oct 12, 2011
1,123
3
0
#2
Kyouken said:
I've been wondering - have spiritual laws (for example Romans 8:28) always been in existence, or did the existence of the spiritual law begin when it was spoken by God (i.e. God told it to whoever wrote the book it was in)?

I know that Adam and Eve weren't bound by the Law considering God hadn't created it, and I'm wondering if that same logic applies to the question above.

I've begun reading the book of Job again, and I've wondered if it was accurate to apply Romans 8:28. More specifically, the only reason I had questioned whether or not one could apply Romans 8:28 was because it was in the New Testament...

Thoughts? Opinions?
Click to expand...
Thou shalt Not..........Was spoken to Adam, concerning the Tree of The Knowledge of good and evil.
That was a law in itself to him.

God's word can't be separated from Spirit, or the Spiritual, For God is Spirit and His Word Spirit.


Blessings
 
T

Trax

Guest
#3
#3
Kyouken said:
I've been wondering - have spiritual laws (for example Romans 8:28) always been in existence, or did the existence of the spiritual law begin when it was spoken by God (i.e. God told it to whoever wrote the book it was in)?

I know that Adam and Eve weren't bound by the Law considering God hadn't created it, and I'm wondering if that same logic applies to the question above.

I've begun reading the book of Job again, and I've wondered if it was accurate to apply Romans 8:28. More specifically, the only reason I had questioned whether or not one could apply Romans 8:28 was because it was in the New Testament...

Thoughts? Opinions?
Click to expand...


For Job, a whole book of the Bible was created, due to his problems. Now everyone has info
that could help them. Job will get a big reward for remaining faithful.
 
resurrection33

resurrection33

Banned
#4
Dec 19, 2009
27,513
128
0
71
#4
Kyouken said:
I've been wondering - have spiritual laws (for example Romans 8:28) always been in existence, or did the existence of the spiritual law begin when it was spoken by God (i.e. God told it to whoever wrote the book it was in)?

I know that Adam and Eve weren't bound by the Law considering God hadn't created it, and I'm wondering if that same logic applies to the question above.

I've begun reading the book of Job again, and I've wondered if it was accurate to apply Romans 8:28. More specifically, the only reason I had questioned whether or not one could apply Romans 8:28 was because it was in the New Testament...

Thoughts? Opinions?
Click to expand...
Our actions have consequences. Certain actions result in unpleasant consequences. These are labeled sins. The law simply brings to our attention what actions bring about unpleasant consequences. For example, if you rob a bank, you get thrown into prison.
 
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