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Not through works, not through self-produced "obedience" (there is no such thing), not through anything but faith through the Grace of God. How many times do we have to tell you ... ?
John 6, NASB
44 "No one can come to Me unless * the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day.
45 "It is written in the prophets, 'AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me.
46 "Not that anyone has seen the Father, except the One who is from God; He has seen the Father.
47 "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes has eternal life."
44 "No one can come to Me unless * the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day.
45 "It is written in the prophets, 'AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me.
46 "Not that anyone has seen the Father, except the One who is from God; He has seen the Father.
47 "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes has eternal life."
Anything added to God's grace through Jesus Christ is a lie, heresy, to be rejected along with the one who teaches such drivel.
Not through works, not through self-produced "obedience" (there is no such thing), not through anything but faith through the Grace of God. How many times do we have to tell you ... ?
John 6, NASB
44 "No one can come to Me unless * the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day.
45 "It is written in the prophets, 'AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me.
46 "Not that anyone has seen the Father, except the One who is from God; He has seen the Father.
47 "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes has eternal life."
44 "No one can come to Me unless * the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up on the last day.
45 "It is written in the prophets, 'AND THEY SHALL ALL BE TAUGHT OF GOD.' Everyone who has heard and learned from the Father, comes to Me.
46 "Not that anyone has seen the Father, except the One who is from God; He has seen the Father.
47 "Truly, truly, I say to you, he who believes has eternal life."
Anything added to God's grace through Jesus Christ is a lie, heresy, to be rejected along with the one who teaches such drivel.
Jn 6:45 shows HOW God draws men....when men are taught, hear and learn. In Acts 2, Peter tuaght them the gospel wrd, they heard and learned pricking their hearts prompting them to ask Peter what shall we DO? Peter did not command them to "do no works" but commanded them to do the works of repenting and submitting to baptism for remission of sins and those that accept Peter's words were baptized, Acts 2:41 those that reject his gospel words rejected baptism so one has not accepted the gospel until he has been baptized.
God draws, men of their own freewill come to Christ.
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L
Yes but how can one be in Christ, if:
A) "none is righteous no, not one? None that understands, there is none that seeketh after God, They have all gone from the way; they have together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.” (Romans 3: 10-12)
B) "The fool hath said in his heart, "There is no God.” They are corrupt; they have done abominable works; there is none that doeth good. The Lord looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand and seek God. They have all turned aside; they are all together become filthy. There is none that doeth good; no, not one. (Psalms 14: 1-3 similar with Psalms 53: 1-3)
Salvation, from all part, is the good work of God. "being confident of this very thing, that He who hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the Day of Jesus Christ." (Phillipians 1: 6)
A) "none is righteous no, not one? None that understands, there is none that seeketh after God, They have all gone from the way; they have together become unprofitable; there is none that doeth good, no, not one.” (Romans 3: 10-12)
B) "The fool hath said in his heart, "There is no God.” They are corrupt; they have done abominable works; there is none that doeth good. The Lord looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand and seek God. They have all turned aside; they are all together become filthy. There is none that doeth good; no, not one. (Psalms 14: 1-3 similar with Psalms 53: 1-3)
Salvation, from all part, is the good work of God. "being confident of this very thing, that He who hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the Day of Jesus Christ." (Phillipians 1: 6)
How do we become 'in Christ'? The answer is given in 1 Cor 1.30. 'Of Him are you IN CHRIST Who is made unto us wisdom, even righteousness, sanctification and redemption.'
We become 'in Christ' when God accounts us as righteous by faith without works (Rom 3.24-28; 1 Cor 5.21), when Christ freely sanctifies us through His blood (Heb 13.12), and when He personally applies to us His work of redemption (Rom 3.24). At that point we are conjoined by the Spirit into the body of Christ (1 Cor 12.13), and all as a consequence of believing
We become 'in Christ' when God accounts us as righteous by faith without works (Rom 3.24-28; 1 Cor 5.21), when Christ freely sanctifies us through His blood (Heb 13.12), and when He personally applies to us His work of redemption (Rom 3.24). At that point we are conjoined by the Spirit into the body of Christ (1 Cor 12.13), and all as a consequence of believing
In Rom 3 Paul is quoting David from Psa 14:
Psa 14: 2,3 "The LORD looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God. They are all gone aside, they are all together become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one."
Yet in verse 5 David speaks of another group "There were they in great fear: for God is in the generation of the righteous."
How can God be in the generation of the righteous if none are righteous? Why is Abel called 'righteous" if none are righteous, Heb 11:4?
It is my opinion in Psa 14:2,3 David is giving a general state of mankind and not the condition of every specific individual was unrighteous. Much as in Gen 6:5 gives a general state of the condition of mankind not that that each specific individual was wicked, verse 8.
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Phil 1:5,6 For your fellowship in the gospel from the first day until now; Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ:
Paul was confident that God would continue that ggod work due to the faitfulness of the Philippians remaining in the gospel from the "first day unto now"
Psa 14: 2,3 "The LORD looked down from heaven upon the children of men, to see if there were any that did understand, and seek God. They are all gone aside, they are all together become filthy: there is none that doeth good, no, not one."
Yet in verse 5 David speaks of another group "There were they in great fear: for God is in the generation of the righteous."
How can God be in the generation of the righteous if none are righteous? Why is Abel called 'righteous" if none are righteous, Heb 11:4?
It is my opinion in Psa 14:2,3 David is giving a general state of mankind and not the condition of every specific individual was unrighteous. Much as in Gen 6:5 gives a general state of the condition of mankind not that that each specific individual was wicked, verse 8.
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Phil 1:5,6 For your fellowship in the gospel from the first day until now; Being confident of this very thing, that he which hath begun a good work in you will perform it until the day of Jesus Christ:
Paul was confident that God would continue that ggod work due to the faitfulness of the Philippians remaining in the gospel from the "first day unto now"
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Gal 3:27 says one is baptized into Christ having put on Christ.
Rom 3:28 "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law."
"Deeds of the law" refers to the OT law not Christ's NT gospel. In Rom 4:5 when Paul says "worketh not" he is speaking about works of the OT law and the flawless law keeping that OT law required.
You post " God accounts us as righteous by faith without works "
Righteousness simply menas 'right doing'. How can one be 'right doing' if he is doing nothing/no works? ROm 6:16-18 how can one be a "servant of righteousness" if he has never obeyed/served/done any righteousness?
Jn 3:5----------Spirit++++++++water>>>>>>>>>in the kingdom
1Cor12:13-----Spirit+++++++baptized>>>>>>>>in the body
1 Cor 12:13 is water baptism, the baptism Paul used in baptizing some of the Corinthians himself, 1 Cor 1:14,16 and it by this water baptism that those Corinthians were in Christ, 1 Cor 1:30...those baptized are the ones God puts in Christ. God does not randomly or for some unknown reason put men in Christ.
Rom 3:28 "Therefore we conclude that a man is justified by faith without the deeds of the law."
"Deeds of the law" refers to the OT law not Christ's NT gospel. In Rom 4:5 when Paul says "worketh not" he is speaking about works of the OT law and the flawless law keeping that OT law required.
You post " God accounts us as righteous by faith without works "
Righteousness simply menas 'right doing'. How can one be 'right doing' if he is doing nothing/no works? ROm 6:16-18 how can one be a "servant of righteousness" if he has never obeyed/served/done any righteousness?
Jn 3:5----------Spirit++++++++water>>>>>>>>>in the kingdom
1Cor12:13-----Spirit+++++++baptized>>>>>>>>in the body
1 Cor 12:13 is water baptism, the baptism Paul used in baptizing some of the Corinthians himself, 1 Cor 1:14,16 and it by this water baptism that those Corinthians were in Christ, 1 Cor 1:30...those baptized are the ones God puts in Christ. God does not randomly or for some unknown reason put men in Christ.
L
1. Well that's why I had also quoted Psalm 14, are you copying an answer from another blog? How do you know David was giving general state and not every specific individual of mankind? It is either David was lying here or David was inspired by God and telling the truth, because it is clearly stated, the Lord looked down from heaven. There is no other option or you must have been reading into the text.
Verse 5 doesn't contradict the above statement whatsoever. Any men, including Habel, are righteous only because of the Grace of God.
2. 'Paul was confident that God would continue that ggod work due to the faitfulness of the Philippians remaining in the gospel from the "first day unto now"' Again, how did you enter into such conclusion? It is too clear to be made crooked, sir. He who has begun a work in you. And your conclusion is the other way around? Since the Phillipians are faithful, then God will do good work? No sir, it is the other way around. Paul is confident that God will continue the good work that He Himself started in the believers, which is evidenced by the believers' life and fellowship in the gospel, from the first day until now. Look at other verses in the same chapter: 11 being filled with the fruits of righteousness which are by Jesus Christ, unto the glory and praise of God. 22 But if I live in the flesh, this is the fruit of my labor; yet what I shall choose, I know not. 29 For unto you it is given on behalf of Christ, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake,
Verse 5 doesn't contradict the above statement whatsoever. Any men, including Habel, are righteous only because of the Grace of God.
2. 'Paul was confident that God would continue that ggod work due to the faitfulness of the Philippians remaining in the gospel from the "first day unto now"' Again, how did you enter into such conclusion? It is too clear to be made crooked, sir. He who has begun a work in you. And your conclusion is the other way around? Since the Phillipians are faithful, then God will do good work? No sir, it is the other way around. Paul is confident that God will continue the good work that He Himself started in the believers, which is evidenced by the believers' life and fellowship in the gospel, from the first day until now. Look at other verses in the same chapter: 11 being filled with the fruits of righteousness which are by Jesus Christ, unto the glory and praise of God. 22 But if I live in the flesh, this is the fruit of my labor; yet what I shall choose, I know not. 29 For unto you it is given on behalf of Christ, not only to believe in Him, but also to suffer for His sake,
L
Yes, where does it say that?
Ok, you might get a point on the thief, but why don't you answer my last question?
Millions of christians who had become martyrs for 1400 years in islamic countries, yet had not had a chance to go to church, let alone be baptized. Are they in hell?
Was not it Paul who said to the believers in Corinthians:
14 I thank God that I baptized none of you but Crispus and Gaius,
15 lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.
16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas. Besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.
17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the Gospel, and not with the wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect.
Ok, you might get a point on the thief, but why don't you answer my last question?
Millions of christians who had become martyrs for 1400 years in islamic countries, yet had not had a chance to go to church, let alone be baptized. Are they in hell?
Was not it Paul who said to the believers in Corinthians:
14 I thank God that I baptized none of you but Crispus and Gaius,
15 lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name.
16 And I baptized also the household of Stephanas. Besides, I know not whether I baptized any other.
17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the Gospel, and not with the wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect.
I said it was my opinion that David was giving a general state of mankind.
There are those that quote Rom 3 that none means none but that cannot be. In the first 3 chapters of Romans, Paul is not talking about individuals but the 2 main groups of mankind, Gentiles and Jews. Paul begins by proving the Gentiles are sinners in chpt 1 and in chpts 2 and 3 he proves Jews are sinners, and in Rom 3:10-18 he quotes those OT verses but in v19 Paul then says "Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." Verse 19 tells me Paul took those OT quotes and directed them specifically at the Jews. Paul quotes those OT verses and is essentially telling the Jews that your own law that was given you says you Jews are sinners.
Why would Paul have confidence God would continue that good work in those Philippians had they left the gospel? Rom 1:16 the gospel is the power of God unto salvation and GOd will not save/work in those that lave the gospel, no salvation outside the gospel. In the Galatian epistle, Paul tells us some of those in Galatia had left the gospel, Gal 1:6-9 and Paul did not say God would continue that good work in them, but instead Paul said to them "I am afraid of you, lest I have bestowed upon you labour in vain" Gal 4:11 and they had no longer obeying the truth, Gal 3:1; Gal 5:7 and they had "fallen from grace" Gal 5:4 for leaving the gospel.
So how can one conclude one can leave the gospel yet still be saved when the gospel is what saves?
There are those that quote Rom 3 that none means none but that cannot be. In the first 3 chapters of Romans, Paul is not talking about individuals but the 2 main groups of mankind, Gentiles and Jews. Paul begins by proving the Gentiles are sinners in chpt 1 and in chpts 2 and 3 he proves Jews are sinners, and in Rom 3:10-18 he quotes those OT verses but in v19 Paul then says "Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it saith to them who are under the law: that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God." Verse 19 tells me Paul took those OT quotes and directed them specifically at the Jews. Paul quotes those OT verses and is essentially telling the Jews that your own law that was given you says you Jews are sinners.
Why would Paul have confidence God would continue that good work in those Philippians had they left the gospel? Rom 1:16 the gospel is the power of God unto salvation and GOd will not save/work in those that lave the gospel, no salvation outside the gospel. In the Galatian epistle, Paul tells us some of those in Galatia had left the gospel, Gal 1:6-9 and Paul did not say God would continue that good work in them, but instead Paul said to them "I am afraid of you, lest I have bestowed upon you labour in vain" Gal 4:11 and they had no longer obeying the truth, Gal 3:1; Gal 5:7 and they had "fallen from grace" Gal 5:4 for leaving the gospel.
So how can one conclude one can leave the gospel yet still be saved when the gospel is what saves?
----In the context of Acts 6 Stephen is called a disciple and from Christ's great commission, Mt 28:19,20 disciples were made by baptism. The context says Stephen was full of faith. NT faith includes baptism, Acts 2:41;44....those that "believed" in v44 are the ones that were baptized in v41, so "believed in v44 includes baptism. The implication of the language of v41 is that one has not accepted the gospel until he has been baptized.
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----anyone not baptized cannot be saved for God has chosen baptism as the means by which He saves, the point where God remits sins. No one can be saved in their unforgiven, unremitted sins. You speak of millions of Christians who had become martyrs. Prove they were even Christians. Millions of people call themselves Christians but they are not, they do not fit the bible's definition of a Christian.
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----the context in 1 Cor is 'proof text' for the necessity of baptism.
First, Paul said "I thank God that I baptized none of you, but Crispus and Gaius;"
Why was Paul thankful he had not baptized any but Crispus and Gaius? Because baptism is not essential?? NO!!! Paul was thankful he had baptized none of you "Lest any should say that I had baptized in mine own name".
There was division at the church in Corinth for instead of them all following Christ as they should, some were following the person who had baptized them. Some claimed they were "of Paul" or "of Cephas" or "of Apollos".
In order to get rid of this division and get them to quit being "OF" men and all be "OF" Christ, Paul asked the following rhetorical negative questions in verse 13 with the obvious answer to each of the questions being a negative;
"Is Christ divided? was Paul crucified for you? or were ye baptized in the name of Paul?"
This verse stated in the positive is: Christ is not divided! Christ was crucified for you. You were baptized in the name of Christ.
Paul's point with his question in v13 is this; if you are going to be "OF" someone then two things must be true:
1) that someone must be crucified for you
2) you must be baptized in that someone's name
Since these 2 things are only true of Christ, then you cannot be "OF" any man.
Are you "OF" Christ?
1) was Christ crucified for you? Heb 2:9 Christ tasted of death for every man, so He was crucified for you.
2) have you been baptized in the name of Christ? If not, then you cannot be of Christ for BOTH (1) and (2) must be true as Paul points out in verse 13.
(This baptism "in the name of Christ" is the same water baptism of Acts 2:38 and Acts 10:47,48)
L
1. If the Jews are sinners, then how can a Gentile who do not even worship YHWH not be seen guilty in sin? So all the world in verse 19 that you quoted actually means the Jews. yea right.
And where was the response to Psalms 14? I thought you were responding to my previous answer in number 1, which discusses Psalms 14?
2. The answer is, they continue to be in the Gospel, because God has continued the good work he had started. Why did you turn it around? Lord have mercy. It is clearly stated, God starts the good work, He also is the one who finishes that good work. How can one come into conclusion that God would continue His good work if/since/after the men are continuing to be in the Gospel?
Rom 1:16 yes, the Gospel is the power of God and outside the Gospel there is no salvation. But, no men can come to understand and believe the Gospel, since it is foolishness to the humans and world, unless the Holy Spirit draws men.
Galatian 1:6-9, yes Paul said let him be accursed. Why? Because from the first, he was not saved at all or in other words, it was not God who did the good works but it was either man doing his own work or man following satan's luring. Is it still not clear to you? The answer can be found in 1 John 2 19 They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us. But they went out, that they might be made manifest that they were not all of us. Can you see that?
3. 'So how can one conclude one can leave the gospel yet still be saved when the gospel is what saves?' Nobody claims this, at least not me. If you were accusing me to have stated this, you are making a straw man. Those who leave the gospel are accursed and no salvation for them to start of with, period. Why? Please see in point 2 above.
And where was the response to Psalms 14? I thought you were responding to my previous answer in number 1, which discusses Psalms 14?
2. The answer is, they continue to be in the Gospel, because God has continued the good work he had started. Why did you turn it around? Lord have mercy. It is clearly stated, God starts the good work, He also is the one who finishes that good work. How can one come into conclusion that God would continue His good work if/since/after the men are continuing to be in the Gospel?
Rom 1:16 yes, the Gospel is the power of God and outside the Gospel there is no salvation. But, no men can come to understand and believe the Gospel, since it is foolishness to the humans and world, unless the Holy Spirit draws men.
Galatian 1:6-9, yes Paul said let him be accursed. Why? Because from the first, he was not saved at all or in other words, it was not God who did the good works but it was either man doing his own work or man following satan's luring. Is it still not clear to you? The answer can be found in 1 John 2 19 They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us. But they went out, that they might be made manifest that they were not all of us. Can you see that?
3. 'So how can one conclude one can leave the gospel yet still be saved when the gospel is what saves?' Nobody claims this, at least not me. If you were accusing me to have stated this, you are making a straw man. Those who leave the gospel are accursed and no salvation for them to start of with, period. Why? Please see in point 2 above.
L
1. Wow, you sure are reading too much into the text, aren't you? Simple wow. But please at least be consistent and don't jump from 41 to 44. If you are going to include baptism to be a requirement as a believer, you must also include the following deeds as mentioned in verse 42 and 43: (i) continue steadfastly in the apostles' doctrine and fellowship (ii) breaking of bread (iii) pray (iv) fear came upon his/her soul. Why did you skip them? LOL Lord have mercy.
2. Again if you claim that baptism is required for salvation, you must be consistent in your opinion. It is either a requirement or not. If you still hold that it is required, then millions of martyrs are actually not saved, since they missed the required baptism according to the belief of seabass. At least be consistent man.
3. Funny that you post many answers to verse 14 and 15, but not verse 17. Was it because I did not make it bold? 17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the Gospel, and not with the wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect.
2. Again if you claim that baptism is required for salvation, you must be consistent in your opinion. It is either a requirement or not. If you still hold that it is required, then millions of martyrs are actually not saved, since they missed the required baptism according to the belief of seabass. At least be consistent man.
3. Funny that you post many answers to verse 14 and 15, but not verse 17. Was it because I did not make it bold? 17 For Christ sent me not to baptize, but to preach the Gospel, and not with the wisdom of words, lest the cross of Christ should be made of no effect.
millions ( a multitude) stand before HIM on judgment day, and HE tells them "be gone from ME, I never knew you".
also, HE said to them earlier in their life on earth "why do you call me Master, but don't do what I say?"
so everyone will have to answer for themselves, just as it is written IN HIS WORD.
also, HE said to them earlier in their life on earth "why do you call me Master, but don't do what I say?"
so everyone will have to answer for themselves, just as it is written IN HIS WORD.
In Rom chpts 1-3 Paul proves BOTH groups Jew and Gentiles sinners. In Rom 3:10-18 here Paul is proving Jews to be sinners by using their very own law against them.
God works in those that keep His gospel. As long as they continue in the gospel God will continue to work in them. God is not working in those OUTSIDE the gospel, not in those that do not keep His gospel. The gospel says one must believe, Jn 8:24 repent Lk 13:3,5 confess Mt 10:32,33; be baptized Mk 16:16 do good works Matt 25 and those that do what God's gospel says are the ones God is working in. God does not start the work, you must first obey the gospel for God to start working in you. God does not randomly chose people to work in so they can then be in the gospel.
God works in those that keep His gospel. As long as they continue in the gospel God will continue to work in them. God is not working in those OUTSIDE the gospel, not in those that do not keep His gospel. The gospel says one must believe, Jn 8:24 repent Lk 13:3,5 confess Mt 10:32,33; be baptized Mk 16:16 do good works Matt 25 and those that do what God's gospel says are the ones God is working in. God does not start the work, you must first obey the gospel for God to start working in you. God does not randomly chose people to work in so they can then be in the gospel.
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I read nothing into the context Paul did not put there. Paul listed TWO, not ONE but TWO conditions that must be meet if you are to be OF someone:
1) that someone must be crucified for you
2) you must be baptized in that someone's name
Since these two things are only true of Christ, then none can be OF any man.
As I showed in my last post, Christ was crucified, tasted death for every man, Heb 2:9. So why isn't every man saved? For every man will not meet the second condition that being baptized in the name of Christ. The phrase "in the name of" is a legal term. If I buy a car or property then I register that car/property in "the name of Seabass", it shows ownership. If one has not been baptized "in the name of" CHrist then he has not come into the ownership of Christ.
Pauls' point in healing the division at Corinth was clear and simple: Christ is not divided. Christ was curcified for you Corithians and you Corinthians were baptized in the name of Christ, so quit following after man for no man was crucified for you nor were you baptized in the name of ant man. Paul used BOTH the NECESSITY of the crucifixition AND baptism in the name of Christ to make one be OF Christ.
Not been baptized = not of Christ.
Verse 17 is a figure of speech known as an ellipsis, a "not-but" statement.
Further info on this figure of speech:
Biblical Figures of Speech: Ellipsis
Paul saying he was not sent to baptized but preach does not mean baptism is not essential.
1) Paul did baptize, 1 Cor 1:14,16 and did not sin for doing so
2) ALL disciples are under Christ's great commission to go, teach and BAPTIZED. Verse 17 does not contradict this commission.
Paul uses this "not-but" eliptical figure of speech showing he put more emphasis upon preaching but not to the exclusion of baptizing.
Peter uses this same figure of speech 1 Pet 3:3,4:
Whose adorning let it not be that outward adorning of plaiting the hair, and of wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel;
But let it be the hidden man of the heart, in that which is not corruptible, even the ornament of a meek and quiet spirit, which is in the sight of God of great price.
Is Peter LITERALLY saying wives should NOT put on apparel? No, he is using the "not-but" elliptical statement in putting more emphasis on the inward adorning over the outward adorning but NOT to the total exclusion of the outward adorning.
Verse 17 does not contradict or negate the necessity of Christ's crucifixition and being baptized in the name of Christ to be OF Christ.
1) that someone must be crucified for you
2) you must be baptized in that someone's name
Since these two things are only true of Christ, then none can be OF any man.
As I showed in my last post, Christ was crucified, tasted death for every man, Heb 2:9. So why isn't every man saved? For every man will not meet the second condition that being baptized in the name of Christ. The phrase "in the name of" is a legal term. If I buy a car or property then I register that car/property in "the name of Seabass", it shows ownership. If one has not been baptized "in the name of" CHrist then he has not come into the ownership of Christ.
Pauls' point in healing the division at Corinth was clear and simple: Christ is not divided. Christ was curcified for you Corithians and you Corinthians were baptized in the name of Christ, so quit following after man for no man was crucified for you nor were you baptized in the name of ant man. Paul used BOTH the NECESSITY of the crucifixition AND baptism in the name of Christ to make one be OF Christ.
Not been baptized = not of Christ.
Verse 17 is a figure of speech known as an ellipsis, a "not-but" statement.
Further info on this figure of speech:
Biblical Figures of Speech: Ellipsis
Paul saying he was not sent to baptized but preach does not mean baptism is not essential.
1) Paul did baptize, 1 Cor 1:14,16 and did not sin for doing so
2) ALL disciples are under Christ's great commission to go, teach and BAPTIZED. Verse 17 does not contradict this commission.
Paul uses this "not-but" eliptical figure of speech showing he put more emphasis upon preaching but not to the exclusion of baptizing.
Peter uses this same figure of speech 1 Pet 3:3,4:
Whose adorning let it not be that outward adorning of plaiting the hair, and of wearing of gold, or of putting on of apparel;
But let it be the hidden man of the heart, in that which is not corruptible, even the ornament of a meek and quiet spirit, which is in the sight of God of great price.
Is Peter LITERALLY saying wives should NOT put on apparel? No, he is using the "not-but" elliptical statement in putting more emphasis on the inward adorning over the outward adorning but NOT to the total exclusion of the outward adorning.
Verse 17 does not contradict or negate the necessity of Christ's crucifixition and being baptized in the name of Christ to be OF Christ.
L
I was agreeing with all your sentences until your last two sentences.
Those two sentences are baseless and contradictory to the scripture which I have quoted. Clearly it was God who begin the good work in the believer.
So I guess that will make you an accursed man. Repent and believe the Gospel, not your own.
It will not be called gift if man can come unto the gospel, it will not be called foolishness if man will come unto the gospel. Nobody claims God randomly chose people, God has known His people from the foundation of the earth, He is omniscient. Another strawman will not do anything. You have been contradicting and denying the truth.
Those two sentences are baseless and contradictory to the scripture which I have quoted. Clearly it was God who begin the good work in the believer.
So I guess that will make you an accursed man. Repent and believe the Gospel, not your own.
It will not be called gift if man can come unto the gospel, it will not be called foolishness if man will come unto the gospel. Nobody claims God randomly chose people, God has known His people from the foundation of the earth, He is omniscient. Another strawman will not do anything. You have been contradicting and denying the truth.