Abraham ate with Jesus.
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S
Well stan, you keep saying John 1 says TheWord, not Jesus. Is "The Word" according to you the spoken Word of God? I'm asking for clarification as to who or what is "The Word?" 
There you go again stan, contradicting yourself. You said the following a couple of post back, "The Word is exactly who John says he is and brings his gospel right back to Genesis 1:1. The second person of the Trinity in the OT, now in the Glorified Body of Jesus the Christ."
Since the Word is Jesus Christ and the Word goes back to Genesis 1:1 how then can you now say, "John 1 says The Word was with God and is God and that The Word became flesh, and that signifies the beginning for Jesus?" If as you say the Word according to the Apostle John goes back to Genesis 1:1 and then you say that "The Word became flesh, AND THAT SIGNIFIES THE BEGINNING OF JESUS" your contradicting not only yourself but the Bible as well.
There is only one person of Jesus Christ and He has two natures, one on His mothers side which is human and one on His Father's side which is Deity. This is the reason accoding to John 3:16 that Jesus Christ is the one and only begotten Son of God as in there are no others.
Furthermore, to make matters even worse for you postion how are going to deal with John 8:56-59? You have Jesus Christ standing there as a man and He says to the Jews at John 8:56, "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he say and was glad." Vs57, "The Jews therefore said to Him have You seen Abraham?" Watch how Jesus answsers them at vs58, "Truly , truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am."
Now look at the reaction of the Jews at vs59, "Therefore they (the Jews) picked up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself, and went out of the temple." Why did the Jews stan, want to stone/kill Jesus? What did Jesus say that so upset the Jews? Maybe you can ask God the point that Jesus Christ was making?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
Since the Word is Jesus Christ and the Word goes back to Genesis 1:1 how then can you now say, "John 1 says The Word was with God and is God and that The Word became flesh, and that signifies the beginning for Jesus?" If as you say the Word according to the Apostle John goes back to Genesis 1:1 and then you say that "The Word became flesh, AND THAT SIGNIFIES THE BEGINNING OF JESUS" your contradicting not only yourself but the Bible as well.
There is only one person of Jesus Christ and He has two natures, one on His mothers side which is human and one on His Father's side which is Deity. This is the reason accoding to John 3:16 that Jesus Christ is the one and only begotten Son of God as in there are no others.
Furthermore, to make matters even worse for you postion how are going to deal with John 8:56-59? You have Jesus Christ standing there as a man and He says to the Jews at John 8:56, "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he say and was glad." Vs57, "The Jews therefore said to Him have You seen Abraham?" Watch how Jesus answsers them at vs58, "Truly , truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am."
Now look at the reaction of the Jews at vs59, "Therefore they (the Jews) picked up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself, and went out of the temple." Why did the Jews stan, want to stone/kill Jesus? What did Jesus say that so upset the Jews? Maybe you can ask God the point that Jesus Christ was making?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
S
There you go again stan, contradicting yourself. You said the following a couple of post back, "The Word is exactly who John says he is and brings his gospel right back to Genesis 1:1. The second person of the Trinity in the OT, now in the Glorified Body of Jesus the Christ."
Since the Word is Jesus Christ and the Word goes back to Genesis 1:1 how then can you now say, "John 1 says The Word was with God and is God and that The Word became flesh, and that signifies the beginning for Jesus?" If as you say the Word according to the Apostle John goes back to Genesis 1:1 and then you say that "The Word became flesh, AND THAT SIGNIFIES THE BEGINNING OF JESUS" your contradicting not only yourself but the Bible as well.
There is only one person of Jesus Christ and He has two natures, one on His mothers side which is human and one on His Father's side which is Deity. This is the reason accoding to John 3:16 that Jesus Christ is the one and only begotten Son of God as in there are no others.
Furthermore, to make matters even worse for you postion how are going to deal with John 8:56-59? You have Jesus Christ standing there as a man and He says to the Jews at John 8:56, "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he say and was glad." Vs57, "The Jews therefore said to Him have You seen Abraham?" Watch how Jesus answsers them at vs58, "Truly , truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am."
Now look at the reaction of the Jews at vs59, "Therefore they (the Jews) picked up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself, and went out of the temple." Why did the Jews stan, want to stone/kill Jesus? What did Jesus say that so upset the Jews? Maybe you can ask God the point that Jesus Christ was making?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
Since the Word is Jesus Christ and the Word goes back to Genesis 1:1 how then can you now say, "John 1 says The Word was with God and is God and that The Word became flesh, and that signifies the beginning for Jesus?" If as you say the Word according to the Apostle John goes back to Genesis 1:1 and then you say that "The Word became flesh, AND THAT SIGNIFIES THE BEGINNING OF JESUS" your contradicting not only yourself but the Bible as well.
There is only one person of Jesus Christ and He has two natures, one on His mothers side which is human and one on His Father's side which is Deity. This is the reason accoding to John 3:16 that Jesus Christ is the one and only begotten Son of God as in there are no others.
Furthermore, to make matters even worse for you postion how are going to deal with John 8:56-59? You have Jesus Christ standing there as a man and He says to the Jews at John 8:56, "Your father Abraham rejoiced to see My day, and he say and was glad." Vs57, "The Jews therefore said to Him have You seen Abraham?" Watch how Jesus answsers them at vs58, "Truly , truly, I say to you, before Abraham was born, I am."
Now look at the reaction of the Jews at vs59, "Therefore they (the Jews) picked up stones to throw at Him; but Jesus hid Himself, and went out of the temple." Why did the Jews stan, want to stone/kill Jesus? What did Jesus say that so upset the Jews? Maybe you can ask God the point that Jesus Christ was making?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
You keep on saying that The Word is Jesus yet nowhere in John 1:1 does it say The Word is Jesus. It says in John 1:14 that The Word became flesh and that flesh was the Son of God. That son was born the word was not born he was incarnated into the only begotten son of God. It's very obvious you don't see the difference but that's a problem you're going to have to resolve yourself.
You also apparently don't understand the hypostatic union because Jesus didn't have two natures, he had one nature or in Greek, his hypostasis.
That you don't or can't understand the difference between when Jesus was speaking as the word of God and when Jesus was speaking as a man is very obvious and how you depict the Bible but sadly only problematic for you and those who don't understand the difference. Again one has to understand what his hypostasis was/is, which obviously you do not. You are so inculcated into your way of thinking that you can't see what the scriptures actually says beyond your own pre dispositional bias.
Yes the Jews obviously understood the implication that Jesus was speaking which is why they wanted to stone him, but that's not the issue that you and I are discussing. The Gospel clearly shows that Jesus had a beginning and that THE WORD did not. Let him who has ears to hear and eyes to see understand what God is telling his people through His written word.
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Wow stan, I just explained to you that Jesus Christ has two natures and then you turn right around and tell me "I don't understand the hypostatice union?" Maybe the following will help but I doubt because you'll come up with another excuse that I don't know what I'm talking about. And if that's the case please post some authority which states the hypostatic union does not mean Jesus has two natures. Please read the follwoing and if you want more evidence I will be glad to provide it.
https://www.gotquestions.org/hypostatic-union.html Here is some more information for you. https://www.google.com/search?sourc...85...........0.#dobs=hypostatic union&spf=186 And PS: I know the "hypostasis" means and if you like I can explain it to you from Hebrews 1:1 and Hebrews 11:1 and how it relates to the Trinity.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
https://www.gotquestions.org/hypostatic-union.html Here is some more information for you. https://www.google.com/search?sourc...85...........0.#dobs=hypostatic union&spf=186 And PS: I know the "hypostasis" means and if you like I can explain it to you from Hebrews 1:1 and Hebrews 11:1 and how it relates to the Trinity.
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
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Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: who, existing in the form of God, counted not the being on an equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied himself, taking the form of a servant, being made in the likeness of men;and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient even unto death, yea, the death of the cross.
The bolded has a lot of implication for sure......
The bolded has a lot of implication for sure......
S
And I just explained to you that that concept is wrong reguardless of what the link you provided states.
Hebrews 1:3 says that he has one hypostasis, not two. Instead of listening to scripture you keep on making excuses.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Heb+1:3&version=MOUNCE
Please provide scripture that indicates that Jesus has two natures.m
Hebrews 1:3 says that he has one hypostasis, not two. Instead of listening to scripture you keep on making excuses.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Heb+1:3&version=MOUNCE
Please provide scripture that indicates that Jesus has two natures.m
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Come on stan, do you really think I need links to support my position that Jesus Christ has two natures? What do you think Philippians 2:5-8 teaches? Here, I'll spell it out for you. Vs5, "Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, Vs6, who, ALTHOUGH He existed in the form of God, didn regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, vs7, "but emptied Himself, taking the from of a bone-servant, being made in the likeness of men, vs8, "and being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross."
I purposefully capitiliazed that word "although" for a reason. Vs6, who, (meaning Jesus Christ) although (meaning in spite of the fact or even though, or granting that) He/Jesus Christ existed in the form of God or as God or having always existing in the form of God took another form of that of a servant/man (according to vs 6-8 and became obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." And if this does not convince you then suppose you tell me why Jesus Christ Himself referred to Himself many times as the "Son of Man" and the "Son of God?" What was the reason stan?
You also have the Apostle John attacking denials of Jesus' humanity as demonic heresy at 1 John 4:1-3 and at 2 John 7:11. Then there is also Colossians 2:9, "For in Him/the man Jesus Christ all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form." And what about Hebrews 5:7, "In the days of His flesh, He offerend up both prayers and supplications with loud crying etc." What was he before the days of His flesh?
Look to at Hebrews 10:5, "Therefore when He/Jesus Christ comes into the wolrd, He says, "Sacrifice and offering Thou hast NOT desired, But a body Thou hast prepared for Me." Or what about what John the Baptist said at John 1:15? "John bore witness of Him, and cried out, saying. This was He of whom I said, He who comes after me has a higher rank that I, FOR (or because stan) HE EXISTED BEFORE ME." How did John know that Jesus Christ existed before him?
And all of what I just stated FROM THE BIBLE AND NOT FROM SITES is just a part of proving Jesus Christ had two natures, I have a lot more evidence. And btw, there is only one hypostasis of God or one nature of God. That word from Hebrews 1:3 means "the substantial quality, nature, of a person or thing." The same word is rendered as "substance" at Hebrews 11:1. The word "person" appears in the Bible along with the word "nature" and what do you think those words mean as it relates to man and to Jesus Christ? Now what are going to do stan?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
I purposefully capitiliazed that word "although" for a reason. Vs6, who, (meaning Jesus Christ) although (meaning in spite of the fact or even though, or granting that) He/Jesus Christ existed in the form of God or as God or having always existing in the form of God took another form of that of a servant/man (according to vs 6-8 and became obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross." And if this does not convince you then suppose you tell me why Jesus Christ Himself referred to Himself many times as the "Son of Man" and the "Son of God?" What was the reason stan?
You also have the Apostle John attacking denials of Jesus' humanity as demonic heresy at 1 John 4:1-3 and at 2 John 7:11. Then there is also Colossians 2:9, "For in Him/the man Jesus Christ all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form." And what about Hebrews 5:7, "In the days of His flesh, He offerend up both prayers and supplications with loud crying etc." What was he before the days of His flesh?
Look to at Hebrews 10:5, "Therefore when He/Jesus Christ comes into the wolrd, He says, "Sacrifice and offering Thou hast NOT desired, But a body Thou hast prepared for Me." Or what about what John the Baptist said at John 1:15? "John bore witness of Him, and cried out, saying. This was He of whom I said, He who comes after me has a higher rank that I, FOR (or because stan) HE EXISTED BEFORE ME." How did John know that Jesus Christ existed before him?
And all of what I just stated FROM THE BIBLE AND NOT FROM SITES is just a part of proving Jesus Christ had two natures, I have a lot more evidence. And btw, there is only one hypostasis of God or one nature of God. That word from Hebrews 1:3 means "the substantial quality, nature, of a person or thing." The same word is rendered as "substance" at Hebrews 11:1. The word "person" appears in the Bible along with the word "nature" and what do you think those words mean as it relates to man and to Jesus Christ? Now what are going to do stan?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
S
Nothing above proves your contention. Not one scripture states Jesus had two natures. What you continue to do is insert your bias into the scripture with equivocal explanations. The word "although" in no way conveys that Jesus was always God and I am amazed that you can say this with little or no compunction. You are not only being dishonest with the word of God but you were openly being dishonest towards God.
Heb 1:3
This Son is the radiance of his glory and the exact representation of his nature, and although sustaining all there is by the word of his power, yet made purification for sins, and then sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high.
It's pretty clear what the Bible says to most people that read it but there will always be some like you that have no idea what the word is telling you. You've accepted the lie and will not repent of it.
I suggest you actually properly exegete the Bible and not just give us your opinion or post links to articles that are erroneous or false.
Heb 1:3
This Son is the radiance of his glory and the exact representation of his nature, and although sustaining all there is by the word of his power, yet made purification for sins, and then sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high.
It's pretty clear what the Bible says to most people that read it but there will always be some like you that have no idea what the word is telling you. You've accepted the lie and will not repent of it.
I suggest you actually properly exegete the Bible and not just give us your opinion or post links to articles that are erroneous or false.
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Jesus is God manifest in the flesh,which the Old Testament says that the Savior to come will be God Himself,and the New Testament says it will be God Himself,which the Bible says God laid down His life for us,and purchased the Church with His own blood.
God manifest in the flesh means that God manifest the fullness of His attributes to the man Christ,for He is the fullness of the Godhead bodily,He has the Spirit without measure,and it pleased the Father that in Him all fullness should dwell,and the Spirit in Christ is still connected to the omnipresent Spirit of God,for God cannot be separated,making Jesus God Himself showing a visible manifestation of Himself,the only way we can see the invisible God,and the man Christ Jesus the personal human body of God,which the throne in heaven is the throne of God and the Lamb,God in the glorified body of the man Christ Jesus.
Jesus is God manifest in the flesh,and in the Old Testament God said there was no God beside Him,and that there was no God formed before Him,and there will be no God formed after Him,and says that when the Savior does come He will be from everlasting,which means He has no beginning,so Jesus as God has no beginning,but as a man has a beginning,for when the fullness of the time was come,God sent forth His Son,made of a woman,made under the law,and made according to the flesh.
Jesus spoke as a man when He said to a man that called Him good Master,and said,why do you call Me good,for there is only one good,and that is God,which He was saying He only did good because God caused Him to do good.
When He said on the cross,My God,My God,why hast though forsaken Me.
When He told Mary,I go to My Father,and your Father,and My God,and your God.
Spoke as God when He said,before Abraham was,I am.
Did not rebuke people when they called Him Lord,and Master.
Said the Son of man is on earth,and in heaven.
Forgave sins.
Did not rebuke Thomas when he fell to his knees,and said,my Lord and My God,but accepted what Thomas said,and said,because you have seen you have believed,but blessed are those that have not seen but believe,for it is faith for those who have not seen.
Jesus is God Himself that walked the earth,for He is God with us,God and man,and the visible manifestation of the invisible God,and the man Christ Jesus the personal human body of God.
God cannot fit in to a human body,for He is an omnipresent Spirit,but Jesus is God manifest in the flesh,the fullness of God's attributes,and the Spirit in Christ is still connected to the omnipresent Spirit of God,for God cannot be separated,and the only way we can see the invisible God,making Jesus qualified to be God Himself.
1Ti 6:14 That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ:
1Ti 6:15 Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
1Ti 6:16 Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.
But Jesus is more than a visible God,but He is an omnipresent invisible God,that dwells in the light that no person is worthy to approach unto,and no person has seen Jesus,and no person will ever see Jesus,but we can see a visible manifestation of Him,the only way we can see the invisible God,and angels cannot even see God unless He chooses to show them a visible manifestation of Himself,for the Bible says,God was manifest in flesh,seen of angels.
Jesus is God and man,an invisible Spirit,and a visible image of God Himself,and not an ordinary man.
God manifest in the flesh means that God manifest the fullness of His attributes to the man Christ,for He is the fullness of the Godhead bodily,He has the Spirit without measure,and it pleased the Father that in Him all fullness should dwell,and the Spirit in Christ is still connected to the omnipresent Spirit of God,for God cannot be separated,making Jesus God Himself showing a visible manifestation of Himself,the only way we can see the invisible God,and the man Christ Jesus the personal human body of God,which the throne in heaven is the throne of God and the Lamb,God in the glorified body of the man Christ Jesus.
Jesus is God manifest in the flesh,and in the Old Testament God said there was no God beside Him,and that there was no God formed before Him,and there will be no God formed after Him,and says that when the Savior does come He will be from everlasting,which means He has no beginning,so Jesus as God has no beginning,but as a man has a beginning,for when the fullness of the time was come,God sent forth His Son,made of a woman,made under the law,and made according to the flesh.
Jesus spoke as a man when He said to a man that called Him good Master,and said,why do you call Me good,for there is only one good,and that is God,which He was saying He only did good because God caused Him to do good.
When He said on the cross,My God,My God,why hast though forsaken Me.
When He told Mary,I go to My Father,and your Father,and My God,and your God.
Spoke as God when He said,before Abraham was,I am.
Did not rebuke people when they called Him Lord,and Master.
Said the Son of man is on earth,and in heaven.
Forgave sins.
Did not rebuke Thomas when he fell to his knees,and said,my Lord and My God,but accepted what Thomas said,and said,because you have seen you have believed,but blessed are those that have not seen but believe,for it is faith for those who have not seen.
Jesus is God Himself that walked the earth,for He is God with us,God and man,and the visible manifestation of the invisible God,and the man Christ Jesus the personal human body of God.
God cannot fit in to a human body,for He is an omnipresent Spirit,but Jesus is God manifest in the flesh,the fullness of God's attributes,and the Spirit in Christ is still connected to the omnipresent Spirit of God,for God cannot be separated,and the only way we can see the invisible God,making Jesus qualified to be God Himself.
1Ti 6:14 That thou keep this commandment without spot, unrebukeable, until the appearing of our Lord Jesus Christ:
1Ti 6:15 Which in his times he shall shew, who is the blessed and only Potentate, the King of kings, and Lord of lords;
1Ti 6:16 Who only hath immortality, dwelling in the light which no man can approach unto; whom no man hath seen, nor can see: to whom be honour and power everlasting. Amen.
But Jesus is more than a visible God,but He is an omnipresent invisible God,that dwells in the light that no person is worthy to approach unto,and no person has seen Jesus,and no person will ever see Jesus,but we can see a visible manifestation of Him,the only way we can see the invisible God,and angels cannot even see God unless He chooses to show them a visible manifestation of Himself,for the Bible says,God was manifest in flesh,seen of angels.
Jesus is God and man,an invisible Spirit,and a visible image of God Himself,and not an ordinary man.
Is that the best you have stan? Your accusing me of being dishonest not only with the word of God but with God Himself? Who the heck are you? You do not know the operation of one's mind to know their motives. How can you prove I'm dishonest when you don't even engage me with any sort of an argument to prove what your saying is true?
And to make the following asinine statement proves your completely Biblicaly ignorant. " It's pretty clear what the Bible says to most people that read it but there will always be some like you that have no idea what the word is telling you. You've accepted the lie and will not repent of it.
I suggest you actually properly exegete the Bible and not just give us your opinion or post links to articles that are erroneous or false." Like I told you before, anybody can give an opinion or state a position, your in the big leagues now so you have to prove or position with evidence and not just a bunch of hot air like you've been doing all along.
Have you ever heard of Greek Scholar A.T.Robertson?
Do you know who Greek scholar A.T. Robertson is? The following is what he said that backs up what I said. And btw, if you want I can provide other Greek Scholars that are in agreement. How about you providing Greek Scholars that agree with you and that "DO NOT BELIEVE" Jesus Christ had two natures?
Verse 6
Being (υπαρχων — huparchōn). Rather, “existing,” present active participle of υπαρχω — huparchō In the form of God (εν μορπηι τεου — en morphēi theou). Μορπη — Morphē means the essential attributes as shown in the form. In his preincarnate state Christ possessed the attributes of God and so appeared to those in heaven who saw him. Here is a clear statement by Paul of the deity of Christ.
A prize (αρπαγμον — harpagmon). Predicate accusative with ηγησατο — hēgēsato Originally words in μος — ̇mos signified the act, not the result (μα — ̇ma). The few examples of αρπαγμος — harpagmos (Plutarch, etc.) allow it to be understood as equivalent to αρπαγμα — harpagma like βαπτισμος — baptismos and βαπτισμα — baptisma That is to say Paul means a prize to be held on to rather than something to be won (“robbery”). To be on an equality with God (το ειναι ισα τεοι — to einai isa theoi). Accusative articular infinitive object of ηγησατο — hēgēsato “the being equal with God” (associative instrumental case τεωι — theōi after ισα — isa). Ισα — Isa is adverbial use of neuter plural with ειναι — einai as in Revelation 21:16. Emptied himself (εαυτον εκενωσε — heauton ekenōse). First aorist active indicative of κενοω — kenoō old verb from κενος — kenos empty. Of what did Christ empty himself? Not of his divine nature. That was impossible. He continued to be the Son of God. There has arisen a great controversy on this word, a Κενοσις — Kenosis doctrine. Undoubtedly Christ gave up his environment of glory. He took upon himself limitations of place (space) and of knowledge and of power, though still on earth retaining more of these than any mere man. It is here that men should show restraint and modesty, though it is hard to believe that Jesus limited himself by error of knowledge and certainly not by error of conduct. He was without sin, though tempted as we are. “He stripped himself of the insignia of majesty” (Lightfoot).[HR][/HR]Verse 7
The form of a servant (μορπην δουλου — morphēn doulou). He took the characteristic attributes (μορπην — morphēn as in Phlippians 2:6) of a slave. His humanity was as real as his deity.
In the likeness of men (εν ομοιωματι αντρωπων — en homoiōmati anthrōpōn). It was a likeness, but a real likeness (Kennedy), no mere phantom humanity as the Docetic Gnostics held. Note the difference in tense between υπαρχων — huparchōn (eternal existence in the μορπη — morphē of God) and γενομενος — genomenos (second aorist middle participle of γινομαι — ginomai becoming, definite entrance in time upon his humanity).
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
And to make the following asinine statement proves your completely Biblicaly ignorant. " It's pretty clear what the Bible says to most people that read it but there will always be some like you that have no idea what the word is telling you. You've accepted the lie and will not repent of it.
I suggest you actually properly exegete the Bible and not just give us your opinion or post links to articles that are erroneous or false." Like I told you before, anybody can give an opinion or state a position, your in the big leagues now so you have to prove or position with evidence and not just a bunch of hot air like you've been doing all along.
Have you ever heard of Greek Scholar A.T.Robertson?
Do you know who Greek scholar A.T. Robertson is? The following is what he said that backs up what I said. And btw, if you want I can provide other Greek Scholars that are in agreement. How about you providing Greek Scholars that agree with you and that "DO NOT BELIEVE" Jesus Christ had two natures?
Verse 6
Being (υπαρχων — huparchōn). Rather, “existing,” present active participle of υπαρχω — huparchō In the form of God (εν μορπηι τεου — en morphēi theou). Μορπη — Morphē means the essential attributes as shown in the form. In his preincarnate state Christ possessed the attributes of God and so appeared to those in heaven who saw him. Here is a clear statement by Paul of the deity of Christ.
A prize (αρπαγμον — harpagmon). Predicate accusative with ηγησατο — hēgēsato Originally words in μος — ̇mos signified the act, not the result (μα — ̇ma). The few examples of αρπαγμος — harpagmos (Plutarch, etc.) allow it to be understood as equivalent to αρπαγμα — harpagma like βαπτισμος — baptismos and βαπτισμα — baptisma That is to say Paul means a prize to be held on to rather than something to be won (“robbery”). To be on an equality with God (το ειναι ισα τεοι — to einai isa theoi). Accusative articular infinitive object of ηγησατο — hēgēsato “the being equal with God” (associative instrumental case τεωι — theōi after ισα — isa). Ισα — Isa is adverbial use of neuter plural with ειναι — einai as in Revelation 21:16. Emptied himself (εαυτον εκενωσε — heauton ekenōse). First aorist active indicative of κενοω — kenoō old verb from κενος — kenos empty. Of what did Christ empty himself? Not of his divine nature. That was impossible. He continued to be the Son of God. There has arisen a great controversy on this word, a Κενοσις — Kenosis doctrine. Undoubtedly Christ gave up his environment of glory. He took upon himself limitations of place (space) and of knowledge and of power, though still on earth retaining more of these than any mere man. It is here that men should show restraint and modesty, though it is hard to believe that Jesus limited himself by error of knowledge and certainly not by error of conduct. He was without sin, though tempted as we are. “He stripped himself of the insignia of majesty” (Lightfoot).[HR][/HR]Verse 7
The form of a servant (μορπην δουλου — morphēn doulou). He took the characteristic attributes (μορπην — morphēn as in Phlippians 2:6) of a slave. His humanity was as real as his deity.
In the likeness of men (εν ομοιωματι αντρωπων — en homoiōmati anthrōpōn). It was a likeness, but a real likeness (Kennedy), no mere phantom humanity as the Docetic Gnostics held. Note the difference in tense between υπαρχων — huparchōn (eternal existence in the μορπη — morphē of God) and γενομενος — genomenos (second aorist middle participle of γινομαι — ginomai becoming, definite entrance in time upon his humanity).
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
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S
Is that the best you have stan? Your accusing me of being dishonest not only with the word of God but with God Himself? Who the heck are you? You do not know the operation of one's mind to know their motives. How can you prove I'm dishonest when you don't even engage me with any sort of an argument to prove what your saying is true?
And to make the following asinine statement proves your completely Biblicaly ignorant. " It's pretty clear what the Bible says to most people that read it but there will always be some like you that have no idea what the word is telling you. You've accepted the lie and will not repent of it.
I suggest you actually properly exegete the Bible and not just give us your opinion or post links to articles that are erroneous or false." Like I told you before, anybody can give an opinion or state a position, your in the big leagues now so you have to prove or position with evidence and not just a bunch of hot air like you've been doing all along.
Have you ever heard of Greek Scholar A.T.Robertson?
Do you know who Greek scholar A.T. Robertson is? The following is what he said that backs up what I said. And btw, if you want I can provide other Greek Scholars that are in agreement. How about you providing Greek Scholars that agree with you and that "DO NOT BELIEVE" Jesus Christ had two natures?
Verse 6
Being (υπαρχων — huparchōn). Rather, “existing,” present active participle of υπαρχω — huparchō In the form of God (εν μορπηι τεου — en morphēi theou). Μορπη — Morphē means the essential attributes as shown in the form. In his preincarnate state Christ possessed the attributes of God and so appeared to those in heaven who saw him. Here is a clear statement by Paul of the deity of Christ.
A prize (αρπαγμον — harpagmon). Predicate accusative with ηγησατο — hēgēsato Originally words in μος — ̇mos signified the act, not the result (μα — ̇ma). The few examples of αρπαγμος — harpagmos (Plutarch, etc.) allow it to be understood as equivalent to αρπαγμα — harpagma like βαπτισμος — baptismos and βαπτισμα — baptisma That is to say Paul means a prize to be held on to rather than something to be won (“robbery”). To be on an equality with God (το ειναι ισα τεοι — to einai isa theoi). Accusative articular infinitive object of ηγησατο — hēgēsato “the being equal with God” (associative instrumental case τεωι — theōi after ισα — isa). Ισα — Isa is adverbial use of neuter plural with ειναι — einai as in Revelation 21:16. Emptied himself (εαυτον εκενωσε — heauton ekenōse). First aorist active indicative of κενοω — kenoō old verb from κενος — kenos empty. Of what did Christ empty himself? Not of his divine nature. That was impossible. He continued to be the Son of God. There has arisen a great controversy on this word, a Κενοσις — Kenosis doctrine. Undoubtedly Christ gave up his environment of glory. He took upon himself limitations of place (space) and of knowledge and of power, though still on earth retaining more of these than any mere man. It is here that men should show restraint and modesty, though it is hard to believe that Jesus limited himself by error of knowledge and certainly not by error of conduct. He was without sin, though tempted as we are. “He stripped himself of the insignia of majesty” (Lightfoot).[HR][/HR]Verse 7
The form of a servant (μορπην δουλου — morphēn doulou). He took the characteristic attributes (μορπην — morphēn as in Phlippians 2:6) of a slave. His humanity was as real as his deity.
In the likeness of men (εν ομοιωματι αντρωπων — en homoiōmati anthrōpōn). It was a likeness, but a real likeness (Kennedy), no mere phantom humanity as the Docetic Gnostics held. Note the difference in tense between υπαρχων — huparchōn (eternal existence in the μορπη — morphē of God) and γενομενος — genomenos (second aorist middle participle of γινομαι — ginomai becoming, definite entrance in time upon his humanity).
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
And to make the following asinine statement proves your completely Biblicaly ignorant. " It's pretty clear what the Bible says to most people that read it but there will always be some like you that have no idea what the word is telling you. You've accepted the lie and will not repent of it.
I suggest you actually properly exegete the Bible and not just give us your opinion or post links to articles that are erroneous or false." Like I told you before, anybody can give an opinion or state a position, your in the big leagues now so you have to prove or position with evidence and not just a bunch of hot air like you've been doing all along.
Have you ever heard of Greek Scholar A.T.Robertson?
Do you know who Greek scholar A.T. Robertson is? The following is what he said that backs up what I said. And btw, if you want I can provide other Greek Scholars that are in agreement. How about you providing Greek Scholars that agree with you and that "DO NOT BELIEVE" Jesus Christ had two natures?
Verse 6
Being (υπαρχων — huparchōn). Rather, “existing,” present active participle of υπαρχω — huparchō In the form of God (εν μορπηι τεου — en morphēi theou). Μορπη — Morphē means the essential attributes as shown in the form. In his preincarnate state Christ possessed the attributes of God and so appeared to those in heaven who saw him. Here is a clear statement by Paul of the deity of Christ.
A prize (αρπαγμον — harpagmon). Predicate accusative with ηγησατο — hēgēsato Originally words in μος — ̇mos signified the act, not the result (μα — ̇ma). The few examples of αρπαγμος — harpagmos (Plutarch, etc.) allow it to be understood as equivalent to αρπαγμα — harpagma like βαπτισμος — baptismos and βαπτισμα — baptisma That is to say Paul means a prize to be held on to rather than something to be won (“robbery”). To be on an equality with God (το ειναι ισα τεοι — to einai isa theoi). Accusative articular infinitive object of ηγησατο — hēgēsato “the being equal with God” (associative instrumental case τεωι — theōi after ισα — isa). Ισα — Isa is adverbial use of neuter plural with ειναι — einai as in Revelation 21:16. Emptied himself (εαυτον εκενωσε — heauton ekenōse). First aorist active indicative of κενοω — kenoō old verb from κενος — kenos empty. Of what did Christ empty himself? Not of his divine nature. That was impossible. He continued to be the Son of God. There has arisen a great controversy on this word, a Κενοσις — Kenosis doctrine. Undoubtedly Christ gave up his environment of glory. He took upon himself limitations of place (space) and of knowledge and of power, though still on earth retaining more of these than any mere man. It is here that men should show restraint and modesty, though it is hard to believe that Jesus limited himself by error of knowledge and certainly not by error of conduct. He was without sin, though tempted as we are. “He stripped himself of the insignia of majesty” (Lightfoot).[HR][/HR]Verse 7
The form of a servant (μορπην δουλου — morphēn doulou). He took the characteristic attributes (μορπην — morphēn as in Phlippians 2:6) of a slave. His humanity was as real as his deity.
In the likeness of men (εν ομοιωματι αντρωπων — en homoiōmati anthrōpōn). It was a likeness, but a real likeness (Kennedy), no mere phantom humanity as the Docetic Gnostics held. Note the difference in tense between υπαρχων — huparchōn (eternal existence in the μορπη — morphē of God) and γενομενος — genomenos (second aorist middle participle of γινομαι — ginomai becoming, definite entrance in time upon his humanity).
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
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