Did Jesus have a Hebrew name? Really?

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danschance

Guest
#21
It’s been my observation that most folks that hold to a sacred name position have the idea that using any other than the ‘name that Yeshua’s mother gave him’ is disrespectful.

-JGIG
I know a man whom I highly respect. He found out his family was originally Jewish, so he became interested in the HRM. Today if you saw him walk past you, you would assume he is an orthodox Jew. He dresses just like them. He looks similar to the below picture except he wears a black hat like seen in the background of this pic.. That is how far down the rabbit hole he fell.

stock-photo-ashdod-october-jewish-ultra-orthodox-man-inspect-lulav-at-a-four-species-market-for-.jpg

He insists that we must call Jesus "Yahoshua" and no other name will do. He does claim it is blatantly disrespectful to call Him Jesus. For those who insist on using a Hebrew name for Jesus, please show me where in the bible it says that.
 

notuptome

Senior Member
May 17, 2013
15,050
2,538
113
#22
I think Thomas had it just right when he called the risen Christ my Lord and my God.

If one is going to use Greek or Hebrew terms then one is obliged to explain them in the context. Greek and Hebrew are both languages that are more exacting than English.

I do not find much credibility in the argument that using Hebrew names for Christ makes one any closer to the Lord. Hey always remember that each persons perception is their reality.

For the cause of Christ
Roger
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#23
Snobbery? Those who die to self and take on Christ simply know of a Greek and Hebrew language, they aren't into connecting snobbery or not with that.

I don't know Greek and don't know Hebrew, but I do know Jesus is spoken of as being from the beginning, and the language at the beginning was Hebrew.
Jesus is from the beginning; the Hebrew language is not.

The Hebrew language developed just like other ancient languages (see Holy Hebrew!).

The belief that the Hebrew language is eternal is from Jewish mysticism. Lurianic Kabbalah teaches that the Hebrew language - the letters themselves - have mystical power and were used to create the universe. (see Kabbalah of Isaac Luria and the Psychological Structures of Language and Creativity)


-JGIG
 

posthuman

Senior Member
Jul 31, 2013
36,670
13,128
113
#24
I think Thomas had it just right when he called the risen Christ my Lord and my God.

ahem. i think you mean אדני ואלוהים שלי
or Ο Κύριός μου και ο Θεός μου

or.. nevermind i know what you meant
;)
 

iamsoandso

Senior Member
Oct 6, 2011
7,852
1,565
113
#25




in all fairness can anyone actually read this???,,,or are we all just giving our 2,,cents??
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#26
Snobbery is discriminating anything associate with Jews or the language. If one thinks trying to speak in and understand his Jewish name is bad, would he think worse if someone try to understand the scripture in original Hebrew or Greek languages?
You have been stirring unnecessary strife by raising questions such as this and you are probably not satisfied until everyone in the world speaks nothing but English in your new world order.

And elitism is thinking that you can know God better or love God better or be more pleasing to God by using what people think is His Hebrew name today.

I don't think the OP is trying to stir up strife, but to show that God is God is God in whatever language. God will ultimately welcome the nations into eternity (see post #19).

So lighten up. God transcends language!

-JGIG
 
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danschance

Guest
#27




in all fairness can anyone actually read this???,,,or are we all just giving our 2,,cents??

Wait, is that the super secret name of God or the pretend fake man-made name of God which evil men sit around and create because they are satanists? I can't tell.
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#28
Snobbery is viewing something with undeserved contempt.

Those who insist on using a Hebrew name for a NT name clearly has an agenda. Greek is a very detailed precise language. Ron Rhodes an apologist who speaks Greek says "Greek is like looking at a picture in color while English is like looking at the same picture in black and white". So according to the experts, there is nothing wrong with Greek, yet some insist on using Hebrew names for God. Why? I think it is snobbery.

Keep in mind I am not saying anything about Hebrew. I am specifically wondering hy some insist on calling Jesus by a Hebrew name when the NT is not written in Hebrew.
I look at it more as elitism; those who use the sacred names (of their choice, ha), tend to look on those who do not as un-studied or ignorant. Okay . . . that is kind of snobbish . . .

-JGIG
 

WomanLovesTX

Senior Member
Jan 1, 2010
1,390
38
0
#29
I don't believe it is snobbery. The Way I view those on CC is we are all part of one body and we don't have the same function but we do work together, just as the natural body has many members.
 

iamsoandso

Senior Member
Oct 6, 2011
7,852
1,565
113
#30
Wait, is that the super secret name of God or the pretend fake man-made name of God which evil men sit around and create because they are satanists? I can't tell.

thats the whole point,,you are correct,but it's just a good guess,you cant prove it to your own self,,,,and someone breaking down a fragment letter by letter "is a madman",,,,,,,,,welcome to 2014,,,
 
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danschance

Guest
#31
I look at it more as elitism; those who use the sacred names (of their choice, ha), tend to look on those who do not as un-studied or ignorant. Okay . . . that is kind of snobbish . . .

-JGIG

Elitism and Snobbery are two sides of the same coin. Its arrogant to assume that you have the real sacred name while the rest of Christendom is in the dark. Yes, the funny end to this story is that the sacred name people can not agree which is the sacred name! The bible calls Him "EE-AY-SOOS", so if you are searching for the sacred name, look no further. The bible is our gold standard, not a two bit conspiracy theory.
 

JGIG

Senior Member
Aug 2, 2013
2,295
167
63
#34
I know a man whom I highly respect. He found out his family was originally Jewish, so he became interested in the HRM. Today if you saw him walk past you, you would assume he is an orthodox Jew. He dresses just like them. He looks similar to the below picture except he wears a black hat like seen in the background of this pic.. That is how far down the rabbit hole he fell.

View attachment 77767

He insists that we must call Jesus "Yahoshua" and no other name will do. He does claim it is blatantly disrespectful to call Him Jesus. For those who insist on using a Hebrew name for Jesus, please show me where in the bible it says that.
There is a certain pride (not misplaced) and desire to connect with one's heritage that I think is great. 'Jewishness' is not what is pleasing to God, however, but being in Christ. He's the stumbling stone - the concept of the One New man no matter one's ethnicity really sticks in the craw of those who consider themselves Israel.



-JGIG
 
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danschance

Guest
#35
thats the whole point,,you are correct,but it's just a good guess,you cant prove it to your own self,,,,and someone breaking down a fragment letter by letter "is a madman",,,,,,,,,welcome to 2014,,,
If you could not tell, I was being satirical. It seems like you are claiming they changed the name of Christ in the bible. If that is the point you are trying to make, it is not true. We have earlier manuscripts that predate AD 170. So we can say with confidence Jesus' revealed name in scripture is "EE-AY-SOOS". Does it really matter what we call him? Different languages call Him different names and still their prayers are answered.
 

iamsoandso

Senior Member
Oct 6, 2011
7,852
1,565
113
#36




in all fairness can anyone actually read this???,,,or are we all just giving our 2,,cents??
ill make a deal,,,the word above the third line is "aNOY"= living creature,it is written in nomina sacra(sacred name)= abbreviation,,,above that is the beginning of "aPl,ect.",,,which is "arithmos",,,,,go to the 4th line,,,,,,interpret,,,"Toop",,,,,,,,
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
9,086
1,749
113
#37
This is a blind post in answer to the OP.

Did Jesus have a Hebrew name? If so, which one? Some call him Yeshua, some call Him Yashua and some call Him Yahoshua and a whole list of other names. They insist He had a Hebrew name yet the scripture only list his name in Greek as "ee-ay-soos".
The names Yeshua and Joshua were, i.e. Yeshua and Yehoshua were transliterated into Greek as 'Iesous.' Greek did not have a letter for the 'sh' sound, and I wouldn't be surprised if Greeks could not say it.

And I suspect there were ancient Hebrew dialects where shin was pronounced as 'sin' and Yeshua would therefore have been pronounced as Yesua. That's my speculation on Shibboleth, the word used in a civil war to determine whether someone was from a certain area. My guess is some of them were saying Sibboleth.

Greek men's names ended with an 's' sound, but a different letter from usual was used as the final letter of the name Iesous. It appears the final letter may have been written like that because it resembles the final letter in in Yeshua.

If I remember correctly, both the names Yeshua and Joshua were transliterated as Iesous. Hebrews refers to Joshua, probably, where the KJV says in Hebrew, of entering the promise land, that if 'Jesus' had given them rest, then he would not have spoken of another day. Justin Martyr made much of Yehoshua and Iesous having the same name in Greek, indicating that this spoke prophetically of the Saviour's name. If I remember right, there was an individual the Old Testament refers to interchangeable as Yeshua and Yehoshua. In Hebrew though, it may have been the same name.

Some argue that the Hebrew pronunciation of Yeshua was actually Yehoshua. There are also other proposed names, unsupported by any literature, put forth by people who do not know Hebrew like Yahushua or Yahshua.


A few years back, someone found an ossuarry--a bone coffin-- believed to have belong to St. James, the Lord's brother. It said, 'Jacob the son of Joseph, the brother of Yeshua.' (Okay, I'm not being consistent with the transliteration of the names.

We say 'James' in English. The name was actually Yavok/Jacob. That's why San Diego is named after Saint Yakov.

It is usual for a brother's name to appear on an ossuarry. Statistically, some scholars argued that with the chances of those three names being in the same family, and with a brother being important enough to be named on the coffin, that this could be the real St. James ossuarry.

What may have happened is that his family and/or the Jerusalem church put his bones in the ossuarry as was custom as he awaited the resurrection. They think the ossuarry ended up in an Armenian church nearby. So the ossuarry and relics were kept as relics for a really, really long time. (His real bones may have been in the holy land instead of in Spain or being peddled around Italy in the middle ages). Eventually, some Bedoine worker may have dug up the ossuarry, dumped our Lord's brother's bones out in the dirt somewhere, or hopefully, buried them, and sold the box to some dealer in Jerusalem. Then it resurfaced a few years ago, got lots of press, and after nearly 2000 years of remaining in tact, got cracked on a trip to Canada.

Here is a page with some photos of the inscription. James, Son of Joseph, Brother of Jesus: The James Ossuary


the scripture only list his name in Greek as "ee-ay-soos
That's a sloppy transliteration. The 'ay' would be a long e sound without the English 'y' sound at the end forming a dipthong.

The folks who say the Aramaic texts are the legit texts or the ones who say the Hebrew of Matthew was the original would disagree.

There is not a shred of evidence that Jesus had a Hebrew name. Yet people insist He not only had a Hebrew name but we should call Him bu it. Is that Just snobbery?
Snobbery? You speak English, and you have the nerve to call him "Jesus" when we know that is not how his name was pronounced, either in Hebrew or in Greek. There is no "J" sound in his original name. If you 'translate' the name back into Hebrew, it is going to be Yeshua or Yehoshua or something similar, so why shouldn't Jewish people who use Hebrew some as their religious language call him that?

At the time of Christ, Israel was fully Hellenized for hundreds of years. The common Israelite did not know how to speak Hebrew. Aramaic and Greek was the language in vogue. That is why the Septuagint so the common man could read and understand the OT.
Where did you get this idea? You'd probably be hard pressed to find a scholar that really believes this nowadays. Why is the Jerusalem Talmud written in Hebrew and Aramaic if what you are saying is true?

Edersheim's stuff is old, but still good scholarship. If you read his 'Life and Times', you can see that they used the Septuigint out of the holy land. He argues that they'd use Hebrew and Aramaic interpreters in synagogues in the holy hand.

It is also possible that the people of Jerusalem and/or the rich elite used Aramaic, and the poor up in Galilee and other areas actually spoke Hebrew. There were a number of Hebrew languages among the people left behind after the captivity. A friend of mine who has a masters in Hebrew translation was telling me about a Jewish scholar from the era who couldn't think of a Hebrew word, so he asked his maid and she reminded him. He was probably an Aramaic speaker, and asked his poor, lower class maid, who spoke Hebrew natively, for the word.

It is possible that Hebrew was Jesus' native language.

Personalty, I have seen miracles happen when pray was invoked in Jesus name. So I don't Jesus cares if I call Him Jesus. Yet some want to call Him by a name they can not prove He had.
Maybe you should ask some Messianic Jews in the holy land about seeing miracles in the name of Yeshua.
 

presidente

Senior Member
May 29, 2013
9,086
1,749
113
#38
Some people say that Allah and our God is the same. Using that name for God is certainly unacceptable.
I know some people who say that using 'God' is unacceptable, and they say 'Elohim.'

But at least 'Allah has a claim at being related to 'Elohim. There are a lot of cognates among Semitic languages.

The belief is that 'Allah is a contraction of 'Al 'ilah, which means 'the God.' 'Ilah is believed to be cognate with 'Eloah, the singular of 'Elohim. Notice, the same consonants--the same triliteral root- but with different vowels.

The evidence seems to be that 'Allah was the pre-Islamic Christian name for God. 'Abdullah is a contraction of 'Abd, meaning servant, and 'Allah. Many Christians had baptized names of 'Abdullah, and there was a man who introduced the Gospel to certain Arabs named 'Abdullah prior to Muhammad as well.

Now, millions of Christians call God 'Allah in Arabic speaking countries, Indonesia, and even other places like Bangladesh. I think it's the name for God in Maltese as well.
 

iamsoandso

Senior Member
Oct 6, 2011
7,852
1,565
113
#39
If you could not tell, I was being satirical. It seems like you are claiming they changed the name of Christ in the bible. If that is the point you are trying to make, it is not true. We have earlier manuscripts that predate AD 170. So we can say with confidence Jesus' revealed name in scripture is "EE-AY-SOOS". Does it really matter what we call him? Different languages call Him different names and still their prayers are answered.
no,,,the name of christ was and is still correct in the bible accep that the y was replaced with "j",,,,

valentinus was declared heratic for changnig the scriptures he changed,,,,,the rest(christians) argued the correct name was and always was "ee-ay-soos",,,,,,what valentinus was teaching was that "ee-ay-soos,came as the mesiah,,,and was crucafied and went to hevan,,,,and years later he(ee-ay-soos),would be reborn,but the next time as the "man of sin",,,,,,,,,,,,,,that is why they were changing the name of the man of sin to make it the same as "ee-ay-soos",,,,,Valentinus was a false teacher,,,,,,,,,,,
 
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danschance

Guest
#40
This is a blind post in answer to the OP.



The names Yeshua and Joshua were, i.e. Yeshua and Yehoshua were transliterated into Greek as 'Iesous.' Greek did not have a letter for the 'sh' sound, and I wouldn't be surprised if Greeks could not say it.

And I suspect there were ancient Hebrew dialects where shin was pronounced as 'sin' and Yeshua would therefore have been pronounced as Yesua. That's my speculation on Shibboleth, the word used in a civil war to determine whether someone was from a certain area. My guess is some of them were saying Sibboleth.

Greek men's names ended with an 's' sound, but a different letter from usual was used as the final letter of the name Iesous. It appears the final letter may have been written like that because it resembles the final letter in in Yeshua.

If I remember correctly, both the names Yeshua and Joshua were transliterated as Iesous. Hebrews refers to Joshua, probably, where the KJV says in Hebrew, of entering the promise land, that if 'Jesus' had given them rest, then he would not have spoken of another day. Justin Martyr made much of Yehoshua and Iesous having the same name in Greek, indicating that this spoke prophetically of the Saviour's name. If I remember right, there was an individual the Old Testament refers to interchangeable as Yeshua and Yehoshua. In Hebrew though, it may have been the same name.

Some argue that the Hebrew pronunciation of Yeshua was actually Yehoshua. There are also other proposed names, unsupported by any literature, put forth by people who do not know Hebrew like Yahushua or Yahshua.


A few years back, someone found an ossuarry--a bone coffin-- believed to have belong to St. James, the Lord's brother. It said, 'Jacob the son of Joseph, the brother of Yeshua.' (Okay, I'm not being consistent with the transliteration of the names.

We say 'James' in English. The name was actually Yavok/Jacob. That's why San Diego is named after Saint Yakov.

It is usual for a brother's name to appear on an ossuarry. Statistically, some scholars argued that with the chances of those three names being in the same family, and with a brother being important enough to be named on the coffin, that this could be the real St. James ossuarry.

What may have happened is that his family and/or the Jerusalem church put his bones in the ossuarry as was custom as he awaited the resurrection. They think the ossuarry ended up in an Armenian church nearby. So the ossuarry and relics were kept as relics for a really, really long time. (His real bones may have been in the holy land instead of in Spain or being peddled around Italy in the middle ages). Eventually, some Bedoine worker may have dug up the ossuarry, dumped our Lord's brother's bones out in the dirt somewhere, or hopefully, buried them, and sold the box to some dealer in Jerusalem. Then it resurfaced a few years ago, got lots of press, and after nearly 2000 years of remaining in tact, got cracked on a trip to Canada.

Here is a page with some photos of the inscription. James, Son of Joseph, Brother of Jesus: The James Ossuary




That's a sloppy transliteration. The 'ay' would be a long e sound without the English 'y' sound at the end forming a dipthong.

The folks who say the Aramaic texts are the legit texts or the ones who say the Hebrew of Matthew was the original would disagree.



Snobbery? You speak English, and you have the nerve to call him "Jesus" when we know that is not how his name was pronounced, either in Hebrew or in Greek. There is no "J" sound in his original name. If you 'translate' the name back into Hebrew, it is going to be Yeshua or Yehoshua or something similar, so why shouldn't Jewish people who use Hebrew some as their religious language call him that?



Where did you get this idea? You'd probably be hard pressed to find a scholar that really believes this nowadays. Why is the Jerusalem Talmud written in Hebrew and Aramaic if what you are saying is true?

Edersheim's stuff is old, but still good scholarship. If you read his 'Life and Times', you can see that they used the Septuigint out of the holy land. He argues that they'd use Hebrew and Aramaic interpreters in synagogues in the holy hand.

It is also possible that the people of Jerusalem and/or the rich elite used Aramaic, and the poor up in Galilee and other areas actually spoke Hebrew. There were a number of Hebrew languages among the people left behind after the captivity. A friend of mine who has a masters in Hebrew translation was telling me about a Jewish scholar from the era who couldn't think of a Hebrew word, so he asked his maid and she reminded him. He was probably an Aramaic speaker, and asked his poor, lower class maid, who spoke Hebrew natively, for the word.

It is possible that Hebrew was Jesus' native language.



Maybe you should ask some Messianic Jews in the holy land about seeing miracles in the name of Yeshua.
Sounds like the you are claiming the bible has been altered by lingustic constraints. If this is true than did the gates of Hell prevail? Did satan win by inserting a different name?