C
I rest my case with you. Someone else will hopefully take this up with you.
What makes you so sure that the website you referred to is the absolute truth? Why do you have so much blind faith in it? what a biased attitude to start with! -- I told you. Listen: I have done the same study on Sheol, Hades, Hell, etc.. and came up with the same. I see that Hades is used in the NT. I see that Sheol is used in the OT. I see where Jesus went to Abraham's Bosom. I see where He who ascended also descended. The bias started when it was said that the wicked dead received salvation. But, yet, we the living, must make that choice now.
If you studied 1 Pet 3:18-19 you would realize that Jesus preached in hell to disobedient spirits and disobedient spirits must be wicked people -- Did He preach (evangelize) the Gospel or did He go and make a proclamation (heralded) to the disobedient? Knowing that the righteous were in Paradise, could He have not proclaim the message He had while in Paradise? Suppose the wicked received the Gospel along with the righteous dead, what then was the purpose of the Law? Why even fulfill it when one knew that they were going to receive a Messiah one way or another? This then leads one to ask, why then believe in Christ now as a Christian, when the wicked dead are given the Gospel as their deliverance from condemnation? Was the Gospel also preached to the wicked dead from Sodom and Gomorrah, seeing that they were there when Jesus was to have preached the Gospel to those wicked from Noah's time? Would it not be a fool who would have denied a Messiah from their averse sentencing? If the Gospel was preached to the wicked dead, I can rest assured that not one would have said they would want to stay behind in outer darkness voided of any goodness if they were offered deliverance. Would one turn down a pardon from prison?
If you studied in Greek the parable about rich man and Lazarus you would realize that Abraham Bosom and Hades are two separate entities -- yes and they were separated by a gulf. Did He release the righteous dead from the Law or the wicked dead who walked as Cain in the land of Nun? You see: salvation is a possession of the righteous, not the wicked.
But because you don’t study any of it you prefer to utter religious statements -- and are you here behind me while I study? How do you know what I have or have not done? Is this deflection?
That’s a typical example of baseless brainwashed religious statement from you -- says who? I have told all that Sheol is Hebrew and Hades is Greek and they both mean: the abode of the dead. I am not the one trying to deliver salvation to the wicked and give hope of future deliverance to the living wicked. Second death means exactly what it says: EVERLASTING DESTRUCTION FROM THE PRESENCE OF THE LORD. If it is everlasting, then there shall be no end to it. If it is a destruction, then that ability to be presented before the Lord has been destroyed (ruined).
How then is it possible for the wicked dead to receive salvation, if it is not even in reach for the living wicked:
Psa 119:155 Salvation is far from the wicked: for they seek not thy statutes.
If you studied 1 Pet 3:18-19 you would realize that Jesus preached in hell to disobedient spirits and disobedient spirits must be wicked people -- Did He preach (evangelize) the Gospel or did He go and make a proclamation (heralded) to the disobedient? Knowing that the righteous were in Paradise, could He have not proclaim the message He had while in Paradise? Suppose the wicked received the Gospel along with the righteous dead, what then was the purpose of the Law? Why even fulfill it when one knew that they were going to receive a Messiah one way or another? This then leads one to ask, why then believe in Christ now as a Christian, when the wicked dead are given the Gospel as their deliverance from condemnation? Was the Gospel also preached to the wicked dead from Sodom and Gomorrah, seeing that they were there when Jesus was to have preached the Gospel to those wicked from Noah's time? Would it not be a fool who would have denied a Messiah from their averse sentencing? If the Gospel was preached to the wicked dead, I can rest assured that not one would have said they would want to stay behind in outer darkness voided of any goodness if they were offered deliverance. Would one turn down a pardon from prison?
If you studied in Greek the parable about rich man and Lazarus you would realize that Abraham Bosom and Hades are two separate entities -- yes and they were separated by a gulf. Did He release the righteous dead from the Law or the wicked dead who walked as Cain in the land of Nun? You see: salvation is a possession of the righteous, not the wicked.
But because you don’t study any of it you prefer to utter religious statements -- and are you here behind me while I study? How do you know what I have or have not done? Is this deflection?
That’s a typical example of baseless brainwashed religious statement from you -- says who? I have told all that Sheol is Hebrew and Hades is Greek and they both mean: the abode of the dead. I am not the one trying to deliver salvation to the wicked and give hope of future deliverance to the living wicked. Second death means exactly what it says: EVERLASTING DESTRUCTION FROM THE PRESENCE OF THE LORD. If it is everlasting, then there shall be no end to it. If it is a destruction, then that ability to be presented before the Lord has been destroyed (ruined).
How then is it possible for the wicked dead to receive salvation, if it is not even in reach for the living wicked:
Psa 119:155 Salvation is far from the wicked: for they seek not thy statutes.
