Holy Bible vs Bible/ Word of God vs Scriptures

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trofimus

trofimus

Senior Member
#62
Aug 17, 2015
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#62
KJV1611 said:
Have you ever noticed how the bible divides things in two's? Example: light vs. dark, good vs bad, virtuous woman vs the harlot woman, The Rock vs the rock, the vine of Christ vs the vine of Sodom... this goes on and on like this. There are no "grey" areas, it's cut and dry one or the other.

To say there are many versions of the bible goes against the core teaching of the bible doesn't it?
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As a virtous woman is not perfect and as a harlot woman is not totally evil and corrupt, so also the NIV is not perfect and he KJV is not totally corrupt.
There are always grey areas. Only God is perfect.
 
KJV1611

KJV1611

Banned
#63
Nov 23, 2013
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#63
trofimus said:
As a virtous woman is not perfect and as a harlot woman is not totally evil and corrupt, so also the NIV is not perfect and he KJV is not totally corrupt.
There are always grey areas. Only God is perfect.
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I would disagree. The virtuous woman represents Heavenly Jerusalem while the harlot woman represents Mystery Babylon. The characters in the bible that foreshadow these two women may not perfectly personify the 2 women but the 2 types of women are light vs dark.
 
trofimus

trofimus

Senior Member
#64
Aug 17, 2015
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794
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#64
KJV1611 said:
I would disagree. The virtuous woman represents Heavenly Jerusalem while the harlot woman represents Mystery Babylon. The characters in the bible that foreshadow these two women may not perfectly personify the 2 women but the 2 types of women are light vs dark.
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Not applicable to English Bible translations, IMHO.
 
James37

James37

Banned
#65
Nov 24, 2017
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#65
Noose said:
And why did Jesus rebuke the Pharisees in John 5:39 for comparing scriptures (the word of God) to Himself (The WORD of God). I have capitalized so that we read from the same page.
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James37 said:
This is what started this facet of the discussion. Jesus did not rebuke the Pharisees in John 5:39 for comparing them to Himself.
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Noose said:
No one said that, i said Jesus rebuked them for thinking that they had scriptures and did not need Him. Jesus made it clear to them that those scriptures wont help them until they turn to Him.
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Yeah you did! The "them" in my quote is referring to the scriptures (not the Pharisees) just to eliminate any confusion. It is exactly what you said.
 
Dino246

Dino246

Senior Member
#67
Jun 30, 2015
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#67
James37 said:
Which one has authority or are they all equal?

Can a man serve two masters?
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Can a man take a verse completely out of context? Apparently, yes.
 
James37

James37

Banned
#68
Nov 24, 2017
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#68
Dino246 said:
Can a man take a verse completely out of context? Apparently, yes.
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I don't think so since MarcR made the statement:

MarcR said:
Jesus is the Word of God; while at the same time He is indeed God. The Bible is the Word of God. The Bible is the visible representation of Jesus until His return.
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Are there many Jesus'? (1 Corinthians 8:6)

Do these many bibles say the same thing? If not then do some qualify as "another Jesus?" (2 Corinthians 11:4) The "Bible" (singular) and the "Word of God" (singular) became 34 bibles that do not always agree.

" Can two walk together, except they be agreed?" (Amos 3:3)

There is a great truth in MarcR's statement but I think one should consider the ramifications of such a statement.

 
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