Inspiration of Scriptures

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
WOW !!!
John 1:1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.

Sir, you could not be more wrong! Jesus Christ is equated to the Word, it is far more than just a book, until you come to understand the relationship between God's Holy Word, Jesus Christ, and man you will never understand this debate or why satin continues to corrupt God's Word. It began in the garden(Gen.3:1), and is continuing today 2018 as we have seen here.
Jesus is not Bible.

Jesus is not equated to the word, Jesus is God, eternal Logos.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
Without faith in the words of God no man can know the Lord Jesus Christ as you pretense they can.
You can be taught in Church, you can get dreams or prophecies from God, you could live with apostles in the first century or with Christ himself.

If you have Holy Spirit in you, He is working with you. If you will end on some isolated island, He will not leave you there without any relationship.

You do not need to study 70 books of the Bible into every verse to know God or to know Jesus Christ. Yes, your faith will be probably more simple, without "calvinism-arminianism" debates etc, but you will lack nothing regarding salvation and good life.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,642
3,533
113
Jesus is not Bible.

Jesus is not equated to the word, Jesus is God, eternal Logos.
Actually, we are to magnify God's word above His name.

Psalm 138:2 I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
Actually, we are to magnify God's word above His name.

Psalm 138:2 I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.
That does not make any sense.

Psalm 137:2
"I will worship toward thy holy temple, and give thanks to thy name, on account of thy mercy and thy truth; for thou hast magnified thy holy name above every thing."

This makes sense.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,642
3,533
113
That does not make any sense.

Psalm 137:2
"I will worship toward thy holy temple, and give thanks to thy name, on account of thy mercy and thy truth; for thou hast magnified thy holy name above every thing."

This makes sense.
What translation did you search out to get this?
 

Joseppi

Senior Member
Jan 4, 2018
887
7
18
You can be taught in Church, you can get dreams or prophecies from God, you could live with apostles in the first century or with Christ himself.

If you have Holy Spirit in you, He is working with you. If you will end on some isolated island, He will not leave you there without any relationship.

You do not need to study 70 books of the Bible into every verse to know God or to know Jesus Christ. Yes, your faith will be probably more simple, without "calvinism-arminianism" debates etc, but you will lack nothing regarding salvation and good life.
The words of Jesus are spirit and they are life.

So, from whomever Jesus' words are faithfully received receive them gladly.

If we have the opprotunity to receive his Holy Book of scriptures into our hearts it behooves us to do it.
 
Dec 4, 2017
906
35
0
God breathed
a gentle passerby until the emanating power from his Word springs forth and washes the humble souls whose love resonates in sincere hearts.
Always Giving praise for the gift of his Son.
 

Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
24,692
13,379
113
Why would anyone waste their time on James White's book when there are numerous critiques available and they all show that his book is seriously defective? Here are some quotation from one of the most detailed critiques.
Since you base your decision on the most vitriolic (and unfounded) criticisms of White, and refuse to read his book for yourself, I will return the favour regarding your recommendation of Burgon.
 
Oct 6, 2017
104
12
18
The one used by Christ, apostles and church for 2000 years - Septuagint.
Many scholars claim that Christ and his apostles used the Septuagint, preferring it above the preserved Hebrew text found in the temple and synagogues. But if the Greek Septuagint was the Bible Jesus used, he would not have said,
"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." (Matthew 5:18)
Why would Jesus not have said this? Because the jot is a Hebrew letter, and the tittle is a small mark to distinguish between Hebrew letters. If Jesus used the Greek Septuagint, His scriptures would not have contained the jot and tittle. He obviously used the Hebrew scriptures!

In addition, Jesus only mentioned the scripture text in two ways, (1) "The Law and the Prophets" and (2) "The Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms":
"And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me." Luke 24:44
The Hebrews divide their Bible into three parts: the Law, the Prophets and the Writings. Jesus clearly referred to this. The Septuagint had no such division. In fact, it contains Apocryphal books interspersed throughout the Old Testament. The sequence is so hopelessly mixed up that Jesus could not possibly have been referring to it!



Daniels, W. David (2001). What is the "Septuagint"?. Retrieved from www.chick.com/ask/articles/septuagint.asp





 
Last edited:

Joseppi

Senior Member
Jan 4, 2018
887
7
18
Psalm 137:2
"I will worship toward thy holy temple, and give thanks to thy name, on account of thy mercy and thy truth; for thou hast magnified thy holy name above every thing."
A name can't be above the person it refers to, for then the person would be beneath a word.
In referring to God's name, it is above all created things, for they are beneath God.
But, Jesus sits on the right hand of God not below his hand.
God's word comes forth out of his heart.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
A name can't be above the person it refers to, for then the person would be beneath a word.
In referring to God's name, it is above all created things, for they are beneath God.
But, Jesus sits on the right hand of God not below his hand.
God's word comes forth out of his heart.
The sentence "I will praise your name because you magnified your word above your name" doest not make sense.

The sentence "I will praise your name because you magnified your holy name above everything" makes clear and simple sense.


Sorry, no matter how hard you are trying to biasedly defend the KJV reading, its very obvious which one is a better reading.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
Many scholars claim that Christ and his apostles used the Septuagint, preferring it above the preserved Hebrew text found in the temple and synagogues. But if the Greek Septuagint was the Bible Jesus used, he would not have said,
"For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled." (Matthew 5:18)
Why would Jesus not have said this? Because the jot is a Hebrew letter, and the tittle is a small mark to distinguish between Hebrew letters. If Jesus used the Greek Septuagint, His scriptures would not have contained the jot and tittle. He obviously used the Hebrew scriptures!

In addition, Jesus only mentioned the scripture text in two ways, (1) "The Law and the Prophets" and (2) "The Law of Moses, the Prophets and the Psalms":
"And he said unto them, These are the words which I spake unto you, while I was yet with you, that all things must be fulfilled, which were written in the law of Moses, and in the prophets, and in the psalms, concerning me." Luke 24:44
The Hebrews divide their Bible into three parts: the Law, the Prophets and the Writings. Jesus clearly referred to this. The Septuagint had no such division. In fact, it contains Apocryphal books interspersed throughout the Old Testament. The sequence is so hopelessly mixed up that Jesus could not possibly have been referring to it!



Daniels, W. David (2001). What is the "Septuagint"?. Retrieved from www.chick.com/ask/articles/septuagint.asp





Jesus was living in the area of Israel, i.e. for most of time He did not speak Greek. Thats why there are arameisms in gospels.

But when you compare His quotes (or quotes of apostles) with your KJV Old testament, you will see. Just do it. Do not be afraid of truth.
 
Last edited:

Joseppi

Senior Member
Jan 4, 2018
887
7
18
The sentence "I will praise your name because you magnified your word above your name" doest not make sense.

The sentence "I will praise your name because you magnified your holy name above everything" makes clear and simple sense.


Sorry, no matter how hard you are trying to biasedly defend the KJV reading, its very obvious which one is a better reading.
I didn't write it and don't defend it. I try to share what the Holy Book says is truth while letting it correct all of our thinking.

I am glad that God exalts his word above his name so that we may know him according to his word.
 

trofimus

Senior Member
Aug 17, 2015
10,684
794
113
I didn't write it and don't defend it. I try to share what the Holy Book says is truth while letting it correct all of our thinking.

I am glad that God exalts his word above his name so that we may know him according to his word.
The Holy Book I own has this verse with a better reading so I do not need any dancing around to explain its meaning.
 
Dec 28, 2016
9,171
2,718
113
Actually, we are to magnify God's word above His name.

Psalm 138:2 I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.
What you mean by this is the KJV is above the very name of God thus your idolatry of a book and version is justified.
 

John146

Senior Member
Jan 13, 2016
16,642
3,533
113
What you mean by this is the KJV is above the very name of God thus your idolatry of a book and version is justified.
God's very word exalts the Savior. When we exalt His word, the Savior is exalted. Without the word of God, we know nothing about the Savior. It is always wise to glorify the word of God. His word stand forever. We are warned about adding to or taking away from the word of God. God's word is of uttermost importance to Him and it should be to us.
 
Jan 25, 2018
673
10
0
For you have been born again, not of perishable seed, but of imperishable, through the living and enduring word of God.
For, "All men are like grass, and all their glory is like the flowers of the field; the grass withers and the flowers fall,
but the word of the Lord stands forever." And this is the word that was preached to you.
1 Peter 1:23-25

But just as he who called you is holy, so be holy in all you do;
for it is written: "Be holy, because I am holy."
1 Peter 1:15-16
 
Dec 28, 2016
9,171
2,718
113
God's very word exalts the Savior. When we exalt His word, the Savior is exalted. Without the word of God, we know nothing about the Savior. It is always wise to glorify the word of God. His word stand forever. We are warned about adding to or taking away from the word of God. God's word is of uttermost importance to Him and it should be to us.
All you are saying above is the KJV is to be proudly worshiped above the name of God because you have a verse to "prove it."

Your argument is summed up here:

[video=youtube;q_BU5hR9gXE]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=q_BU5hR9gXE[/video]