Inspiration of Scriptures

[trofimus]

We are warned about adding to or taking away from the word of God. God's word is of uttermost importance to Him and it should be to us.

So, why did the KJV take away from Is 52:6 or added to R 2:24:

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"For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written."
R 2:24 KJV

"and my name continually every day is blasphemed."
Is 52:6 KJV

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The situation is not so black and white as you try to teach (the perfect KJV and everything else is bad).

 

[preacher4truth]

Not true.

And even more not true if you mean "without the KJV".

He corrupted the word of God by failing to Anglicize "Savior" to "Saviour." It all must be correctly spelled, and "word for word" to be "the pure word of God."

 

[Donmech]

So, why did the KJV take away from Is 52:6 or added to R 2:24:

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"For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written."
R 2:24 KJV

"and my name continually every day is blasphemed."
Is 52:6 KJV

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The situation is not so black and white as you try to teach (the perfect KJV and everything else is bad).

Please provide the resource to which you are comparing verses in order to validate accusations.
Thank you

 

[Donmech]

What you mean by this is the KJV is above the very name of God thus your idolatry of a book and version is justified.

There is no idolatry when John 1:1 says, " In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God".

 

[Donmech]

There is no idolatry when John 1:1 says, " In the beginning was the Word,(Jesus Christ) and the Word(Jesus Christ) was with God, and the Word(Jesus Christ) was God".

 

[Donmech]

Jesus is not Bible.

Jesus is not equated to the word, Jesus is God,

Do you deny John 1:1?

 

[Nehemiah6]

So, why did the KJV take away from Is 52:6 or added to R 2:24:

"For the name of God is blasphemed among the Gentiles through you, as it is written."
R 2:24 KJV

"and my name continually every day is blasphemed."
Is 52:6 KJV

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The situation is not so black and white as you try to teach (the perfect KJV and everything else is bad).

What makes you think that the KJV "took away" anything from Romans 2:24? Again your bias is showing.

As any fair-minded person will notice, both the Received Text and the Critical Text are IDENTICAL as seen below:

RECEIVED TEXT (Stephanus)
τὸ γὰρ ὄνομα τοῦ θεοῦ δι' ὑμᾶς βλασφημεῖται ἐν τοῖς ἔθνεσιν καθὼς γέγραπται

CRITICAL TEXT (Nestle)
τὸ γὰρ ὄνομα τοῦ Θεοῦ δι’ ὑμᾶς βλασφημεῖται ἐν τοῖς ἔθνεσιν, καθὼς γέγραπται.

As to your cross-reference with Isa 52:6, it is what it is. But you could also cross-reference with Ezekiel 36:20,23. Just because there is a quotation from the OT does not mean that the Holy Spirit cannot modify that quotation if He so chooses.

And when they entered unto the heathen, whither they went, they profaned my holy name, when they said to them, These are the people of the LORD, and are gone forth out of his land...And I will sanctify my great name, which was profaned among the heathen, which ye have profaned in the midst of them; and the heathen shall know that I am the LORD, saith the Lord GOD, when I shall be sanctified in you before their eyes.

If you are going to be biased, it is time to be biased in favor of the KJV, not the corruptions pretending to be the Word of God.