Jesus killed the law causing enmity to cease

[Elin]

During my childhood, and beyond into my adulthood, I often heard the term “two wrongs don't make a right.” This is true, and even more so when we misinterpret scripture to our own liking depending what we have come to believe, what we have heard form the pulpit, and heard from many others who profess faith in Christ Jesus our Lord. In the case which I am ready to present, I first have to admit my error in that I had determined the following scripture to refer to only “temple ordinances,” deemed as belonging only to the Jews i.e. Israel. I was partially right, but this isn't what Paul was referring to, for in Christ,
the Priesthood, with its ordinances has not been abolished, but yet rather established in Spirit.

The Levitical priesthood and its ordinances no longer exist.

Only the priesthood of Melchizedek exists, with Jesus Christ as its eternal High Priest.

On the other side of the equation, it is also an error
to say all of God's law (in the Old Testament) has been abolished through Christ which
is also a falsehood.

All the Mosaic regulations have been abolished.

The Ten Commandments are not the source of righteousness, only faith in Jesus Christ
is the source of righteousness/justification, while the obedience of faith through the Holy Spirit
is the source of righteousness/sanctification.

I have recently acquired a transcript, translated into English, from the original Eastern Oriental Aramaic Peshitta text written by Paul to the Ephesians. The focus of these two wrongs is Ephesians 1:15 highlighted in red. First is the King James version, and following second will be from the “Peshitta English Aramaic translation” with explanations of Paul's true intention to the church in Ephesus. In so doing, this will also reveal these two errors previously mentioned.

Ephesians 2:13-18 (KJV)
13 But now in Christ Jesus ye who sometimes were far off are made nigh by the blood of Christ.
14 For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us;
15 Having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace;
16 And that he might reconcile both unto God in one body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby:
17 And came and preached peace to you which were afar off, and to them that were nigh.
18 For through him we both have access by one Spirit unto the Father.

Ephesians 2:13-14 from the original Eastern Oriental Aramaic Peshitta.
13 But now, by Y'shua the Mashiyach; you who before were afar off, have been brought near by the blood of the Mashiyach.
14 He is Himself our peace, who has made the two (become) one, and has demolished the wall which stood in the midst, and the enmity, by His flesh;

Arimaic for wall is “syaga.” Ironically, this exact term was picked up by the Talmudic rabbis in “Pirkei Avot” (Sayings of the Fathers) that commanded “make a fence around the Torah.” Y'shua specifically warned against this activity in Matthew chapter 15 rebuking the Pharisees in the process. Later on, Y'shua said he was the “door/gate” using a synonym for “syaga,” known as “taarea,” which is a homonym for “torah” and “teachers,” meaning the Pharisees. So
while the Pharisees are busy erecting the fence, Y'shua is pulling it down, allowing everyone access!

I will interject that Jesus plainly said that He was the teacher of Torah the right way so all have access, and not the way the Pharisees taught by restriction. I will post more in the following post so this won't get too long.

The dividing wall (Mosaic regulations) in Eph 2:14 divided Jew from Gentile, not man from God.
The Mosaic regulations made the Gentiles unclean to the Jews, requiring their separation.

Jesus abolished in his flesh the Mosaic regulations which caused the hostility between Jew and Gentile,
thus reconciling Jew and Gentile into one body, and then reconciling to God this one body of believers
who had been separated from God by sin.

The hostilities destroyed were two: one between Jew and Gentile, and the other between sinful man and God.

 

[Elin]

I have recently acquired a transcript, translated into English,
from the original Eastern Oriental Aramaic Peshitta text written by Paul to the Ephesians.

Continuing Ephesians 2:15-17 from the original Eastern Oriental Aramaic Peshitta.

So was the Peshitta text a translation of the Greek?

What is its relations to the Greek text?

How accurate is the English translation from the Aramaic?

 

[just-me]

So was the Peshitta text a translation of the Greek?

What is its relations to the Greek text?

How accurate is the English translation from the Aramaic?

1. No
2. None, but Greek scholars have had input. None depending on what you are referring to when you are using the word "relations."
3. Popular English New Testaments come from Greek translations originally converted from Hebrew and Aramaic texts. Conversely, the AENT (Aramaic English New Testament) comes directly from Aramaic, the very language spoken by Jesus and his disciples.Over 1,000 leading language scholars and Bible students have rigorously dedicated their unrivaled expertise to the 5th edition of the AENT. A wonderfully diverse tapestry of Jewish and Christian religious ideologists has collectively provided thousands of hours of unbiased peer review. Publishers, translators, editors, and contributors have passionately woven hundreds of years of study and research of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek into the AENT.

 

[Elin]

So was the Peshitta text a translation of the Greek?

What is its relation to the Greek text?

How accurate is the English translation from the Aramaic?

1. No
2. none, depending on what you are referring to when you are using the word "relations."
3. Popular English New Testaments come from
Greek translations originally converted from Hebrew and Aramaic texts.

What is your basis for this assertion?

 

[just-me]

The Levitical priesthood and its ordinances no longer exist.

Only the priesthood of Melchizedek exists, with Jesus Christ as its eternal High Priest.


All the Mosaic regulations have been abolished.

The Ten Commandments are not the source of righteousness, only faith in Jesus Christ
is the source of righteousness/justification, while the obedience of faith through the Holy Spirit
is the source of righteousness/sanctification.


The dividing wall (Mosaic regulations) in Eph 2:14 divided Jew from Gentile, not man from God.
The Mosaic regulations made the Gentiles unclean to the Jews, requiring their separation.

Jesus abolished in his flesh the Mosaic regulations which caused the hostility between Jew and Gentile,
thus reconciling Jew and Gentile into one body, and then reconciling to God this one body of believers
who had been separated from God by sin.

The hostilities destroyed were two: one between Jew and Gentile, and the other between sinful man and God.

Your interpretation is incorrect because it doesn't line up with all of scripture.

 

[just-me]

Popular English New Testaments come from Greek translations originally converted from Hebrew and Aramaic texts. Conversely, the AENT (Aramaic English New Testament) comes directly from Aramaic, the very language spoken by Jesus and his disciples.Over 1,000 leading language scholars and Bible students have rigorously dedicated their unrivaled expertise to the 5th edition of the AENT. A wonderfully diverse tapestry of Jewish and Christian religious ideologists has collectively provided thousands of hours of unbiased peer review. Publishers, translators, editors, and contributors have passionately woven hundreds of years of study and research of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek into the AENT.

What is your basis for this assertion?

I took the quote from
The Aramaic English New Testament Bible | AENT.orgAramaic English New Testament | Aramaic English New Testament

 

[Elin]

Your interpretation is incorrect because it doesn't line up with all of scripture.

Check 'em again. . .

the Priesthood, with its ordinances has not been abolished, but yet rather established in Spirit.

The Levitical priesthood and its ordinances no longer exist. -- Heb 7:11-12, 18

Only the priesthood of Melchizedek exists, with Jesus Christ as its eternal High Priest. -- Heb 7:17, 21

On the other side of the equation, it is also an error
to say all of God's law (in the Old Testament) has been abolished through Christ which is also a falsehood.

All the Mosaic regulations have been abolished. -- Eph 2:15

The Ten Commandments are not the source of righteousness/justification, only faith in Jesus Christ is the source of righteousness/justification, -- Eph 2:8-9
which is a gift from God, not from works-- Ro 5:17

while the obedience of faith through the Holy Spirit is the source of righteousness/sanctification.

The dividing wall (Mosaic regulations) in Eph 2:14 divided Jew from Gentile, not man from God.
The Mosaic regulations made the Gentiles unclean to the Jews, requiring their separation.

Jesus abolished in his flesh the Mosaic regulations which caused the hostility between Jew and Gentile,
thus reconciling Jew and Gentile into one body, and then reconciling to God this one body of believers
who had been separated from God by sin.

The hostilities destroyed were two: one between Jew and Gentile, and the other between sinful man and God.

 

[oldhermit]

1. No
2. None, but Greek scholars have had input. None depending on what you are referring to when you are using the word "relations."
3. Popular English New Testaments come from Greek translations originally converted from Hebrew and Aramaic texts. Conversely, the AENT (Aramaic English New Testament) comes directly from Aramaic, the very language spoken by Jesus and his disciples.Over 1,000 leading language scholars and Bible students have rigorously dedicated their unrivaled expertise to the 5th edition of the AENT. A wonderfully diverse tapestry of Jewish and Christian religious ideologists has collectively provided thousands of hours of unbiased peer review. Publishers, translators, editors, and contributors have passionately woven hundreds of years of study and research of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek into the AENT.

Perhaps you could provide us with the Manuscript evidence that proves the NT was taken from earlier 'original' Hebrew manuscripts.

 

[just-me]

Perhaps you could provide us with the Manuscript evidence that proves the NT was taken from earlier 'original' Hebrew manuscripts.

I never indicated that it was written originally in Hebrew. It was originaly written in mostly (if not all) in Peshitta Aramaic.

 

[just-me]

Check 'em again. . .

Probably time to re-read these 2 posts
post 379

post 380

 

[oldhermit]

I never indicated that it was written originally in Hebrew. It was originaly written in mostly (if not all) in Peshitta Aramaic.

Show me the Manuscript evidence that proves your contention.

 

[Delivery]

1. No
2. None, but Greek scholars have had input. None depending on what you are referring to when you are using the word "relations."
3. Popular English New Testaments come from Greek translations originally converted from Hebrew and Aramaic texts. Conversely, the AENT (Aramaic English New Testament) comes directly from Aramaic, the very language spoken by Jesus and his disciples.Over 1,000 leading language scholars and Bible students have rigorously dedicated their unrivaled expertise to the 5th edition of the AENT. A wonderfully diverse tapestry of Jewish and Christian religious ideologists has collectively provided thousands of hours of unbiased peer review. Publishers, translators, editors, and contributors have passionately woven hundreds of years of study and research of Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek into the AENT.

Personally, I take issue with the idea that the new Testament was originally written in Aramaic then translated into Greek. Aramaic was the common spoken language of that day for that part of the world. (In and around Judea) But Greek was the main written language that was used during that time. Most educated people spoke, read and wrote in Greek. and most legal documents were in Greek. Aramaic was the main dialect of the area in and around Judea. The Apostle Paul would have written in Greek because most of his epistles were written to the churches he established in Asia minor and Greece. Most of the people in that part of the world probably didn't even speak Aramaic, let alone read and write it. Everybody spoke Greek since Greece was the world empire that controlled the world until the Romans came along.

 

[just-me]

Show me the Manuscript evidence that proves your contention.

No contention on my part.

I took the quote from
The Aramaic English New Testament Bible | AENT.orgAramaic English New Testament | Aramaic English New Testament

I have this book. It contains all the books we have in any New Testament translations. Most of what I have quoted are verbatim from this New Testament. It concentrates on the original script from the Peshitta dialect of Aramaic. Just thought I'd share.

 

[oldhermit]

No contention on my part.

If there is not contention then why do you insist that the NT was originally written in Aramaic since there in absolutely no MSS evidence to support such a claim?

 

[Elin]

I never indicated that it was written originally in Hebrew. It was originaly written in mostly (if not all) in Peshitta Aramaic.

Coulda' fooled me. . .

3. Popular English New Testaments come from
Greek translations originally converted from Hebrew and Aramaic texts.

Where are these Hebrew manuscripts that you know they are translated from?

 

[oldhermit]

I have this book. It contains all the books we have in any New Testament translations. Most of what I have quoted are verbatim from this New Testament. It concentrates on the original script from the Peshitta dialect of Aramaic. Just thought I'd share.

This book and others like it have the same problem you have, they cannot produce the MSS evidence to prove their claim. All they have is speculation and conjecture upon which to build their arguments.

 

[just-me]

Personally, I take issue with the idea that the new Testament was originally written in Aramaic then translated into Greek. Aramaic was the common spoken language of that day for that part of the world. (In and around Judea) But Greek was the main written language that was used during that time. Most educated people spoke, read and wrote in Greek. and most legal documents were in Greek. Aramaic was the main dialect of the area in and around Judea. The Apostle Paul would have written in Greek because most of his epistles were written to the churches he established in Asia minor and Greece. Most of the people in that part of the world probably didn't even speak Aramaic, let alone read and write it. Everybody spoke Greek since Greece was the world empire that controlled the world until the Romans came along.

The Romans used Latin for official communication, but Greek was the common language of the Empire. The Septuagint written during the time of the Greek domination was the Old Testament Law and Prophets as we know it today which was written in Hebrew. That's what the Apostles, and Jesus refer to in all of their teachings when quoting scripture. As one who believes about Jesus all the things orthodox Christians do, it would not impact my faith one jot or tittle if Jesus spoke Hebrew rather than Aramaic, or Greek rather than Hebrew. Thus I am not caught up in the maelstrom of a language debate.

​

 

[Elin]

Check 'em again. . .

The Levitical priesthood and its ordinances no longer exist. -- Heb 7:11-12, 18

Only the priesthood of Melchizedek exists, with Jesus Christ as its eternal High Priest. -- Heb 7:17, 21

All the Mosaic regulations have been abolished. -- Eph 2:15

The Ten Commandments are not the source of righteousness/justification, only faith in Jesus Christ is the source of righteousness/justification, -- Eph 2:8-9
which is a gift from God, not from works-- Ro 5:17

while the obedience of faith through the Holy Spirit is the source of righteousness/sanctification.

The dividing wall (Mosaic regulations) in Eph 2:14 divided Jew from Gentile, not man from God.
The Mosaic regulations made the Gentiles unclean to the Jews, requiring their separation.

Jesus abolished in his flesh the Mosaic regulations which caused the hostility between Jew and Gentile,
thus reconciling Jew and Gentile into one body, and then reconciling to God this one body of believers
who had been separated from God by sin.

Probably time to re-read these 2 posts
post379

post 380

Falls somewhat short of a demonstration regarding the above Scriptures. . .

 

[oldhermit]

Falls somewhat short of a demonstration regarding the above Scriptures. . .

Do you come from the "Hebrews roots" movement?

 

[Elin]

The Romans used Latin for official communication, but Greek was the common language of the Empire. The Septuagint written during the time of the Greek domination

The Septuagint was a translation of the OT into Greek several hundred years before the birth of Christ.

Jesus and the apostles quoted the Greek Septuagint, not the Hebrew.