King James Bible ONLY? Or NOT?

[fredoheaven]

So, I checked the ESV and KJV for the words "final authority" being together. They are not. So, no where in the Bible does it say the KJV is the final authority, because the words are just not there. No Bible version is the "final authority." But Jesus is!

So I checked on the word "authority" in this case, exousia. Here is what I found.

"And it came to pass, when Jesus had ended these sayings, the people were astonished at his doctrine:29 For he taught them as one having authority, and not as the scribes." Matt. 7:28-29



"And Jesus came and said to them, “All authority in heaven and on earth has been given to me." Matt 28:18 ESV

"And Jesus came and spake unto them, saying, All power is given unto me in heaven and in earth."KJV.

Hmm! Both versions are right! Jesus has πᾶσα ἐξουσία or "pasa exousia" which is all power or authority.

Maybe this is your problem John? You do not realize Jesus has all authority, not a translation?

Yet you missed one thing! When the ‘Final Authority’ is being discussed, we simply affirm of the written scriptures. Of course, just as the father has been given an authority to his family, the king has the authority over his kingdom, God is the holder the complete of Authority to all. Question is where do we know the fact that God is the authority? how do you know the real Jesus? Where do you think can one glean the facts of the person and message of Jesus? If you have other than what the Bible offers, then perhaps, we don’t have the same Jesus!

So if we talked about the Final Authority we simply talked of the Written Authority, the scriptures.
When Jesus was tempted by the devil, used the word (the scriptures) as his Final Authority.

Interestingly, compare your ESV with the KJV in this instance what really represent the true reading as found in Luke 4:4, Did Jesus say as in ESV is the correct one? or it is the KJV that does say it properly. A simple cross-reference to what Christ quoted, seem ESV failed the test.

KJV Luke 4:4 And Jesus answered him, saying, It is written, That man shall not live by bread alone, but by every word of God.

ESV Luke 4:4 And Jesus answered him, “It is written, ‘Man shall not live by bread alone.’”

KJV Deut. 8:3 And he humbled thee, and suffered thee to hunger, and fed thee with manna, which thou knewest not, neither did thy fathers know; that he might make thee know that man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live.

ESV Deut.8:3 And he humbled you and let you hunger and fed you with manna, which you did not know, nor did your fathers know, that he might make you know that man does not live by bread alone, but man lives by every word[fn] that comes from the mouth of the LORD.

 

[hornetguy]

I've found the KJV to contain the least translation errors.

Based on what, exactly? Your "gut instinct" ?

I mean, since going to school and actually learning Greek and Hebrew is detrimental to "understanding" the Bible..

Did the Holy Spirit tell you that the KJV had the fewest (not least) errors?

 

[tanakh]

All anyone has to do is have both the KJV and another version and use both - simple!

 

[dcontroversal]

The King Jimmy is a translation/transliteration.....end of story.....If you use a King Jimmy I recommend looking every word up in the original languages.......I use a King Jimmy, NASV, AMPLIFIED, TANACH, ESV AND ALWAYS go to the Greek and Hebrew to see what the words actually meant, including the verb tense especially in the N.T.......

 

[SovereignGrace]

All anyone has to do is have both the KJV and another version and use both - simple!

However, the KJVOnlists won't use both. Ergo, the KJVO.

 

[trofimus]

Why would you think they weren't inspired?

For me, the biggest problem with almost any English translation (KJV included) is that they chose the Hebrew Masoretic text for the Old Testament.

This text is full of errors and with anti-Christian bias.

Thats why when you compare your KJV New Testament quotations from the OT and your actual OT in the same Bible, you will get so much difference and it will seem to you that apostles were lying or with "very free license" regarding the OT prophecies.

 

[fredoheaven]

The KJV is a relic from an age of biblical ignorance and verbal antiquities!

Thomas Shelton’s 1612 English translation of the first of the two volumes of El ingenioso hidalgo don Quixote de la Mancha is written in the same beautiful English as the 1611 KJV, but without the extreme archaisms. For example, in Matt. 4:2 we read in the KJV,

4:2. And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward Matthew 4:2 And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred.

The expression, ‘an hungred’ is so ancient and obscure that today’s most prominent lexicographers of the English language disagree on the meaning of it. Moreover, the expression was so ancient and obscure even when the KJV was first published in 1611 that printers of it believed it to be a grammatical error and attempted to correct it by changing it to “an hungered,” or “a hungered,” or “ahungered.” In my study, I have copies of the KJV with all four of these renderings. We do not find ludicrous messes like this in good translations of the Bible.

Hi Sagart,

I found yours maybe a good joke! Here, you miss one thing of what you are trying to compare is based on a single translator of what? To what are you referring the expression ‘an hungred”? Are you referring to the spelling? or perhaps , you are having a trouble with the article “an?” What do you mean? Are you going to a footnote instead of the text?

Thanks

 

[fredoheaven]

I would never watch a video that supports KJV only.

The KJV was translated from 7 very late manuscripts, filled with errors.

Oh no! You might be spreading a false information here saying KJV was translated to those 7 late mss. During the time where the AV translators did translated the KJV has more than 5,000+ Greek extant and majority of them favored the KJV plus versions of the Bible like old latin, italic and quotations from the church fathers etc.

So what are those 7 mss? Can you name them so that I have to study/research them? or Is this only a copycat from Mr. Combs, White, Kutilek, Wallace etc...Thanks

 

[Johnny_B]

I watched a video recently that changed my mind on the type of Bible I should keep as the over-riding bible authority. I have an NIV, ESV, Gideon's new testament, NKJV, KJV and am picking up a n Amplified Holy Bible tomorrow. I will probably use one of the most accurate to the King James, for quick reading, but highlight thereof area's and swap back to KJV. But will try to stick with the old English in the KJV until I get confused.

I watched Pastor Steven L Anderson's, New World Order movie. Just under 2 hours long, very interesting. Puts potentially the NIV, ESV, NKJV and more to shame, depending on version's and errors of course.

So, (1) Have you watched the video? If not,
watch it first, please.

(1b) Did the video change your mind?

(2) What Bible do you support?

(3) Why do you support it?

At the bottom of your post, please put final Bible choice in caps, alone, so it can be seen as a tally. Thanks.

KJV

​Why does it have to be the KJV and not the Bishops or Geneva Bibles, they used the same manuscripts?

The NKJV uses the same manuscripts as the KJV, only difference is the updated language. I prefer the ESV, but I always have the NKJV in arms reach if I am wondering about some thing. Here's what I'm talking about, Romans 12:16 ESV "Live in harmony with one another. Do not be haughty, but associate with the lowly. Never be wise in your own sight." NKJV "Be of the same mind toward one another. Do not set your mind on high things, but associate with the humble. Do not be wise in your own opinion."

Both modern translations read with easy understanding, lets look at the KJV "Be of the same mind one toward another. Mind not high things, but condescend to men of low estate. Be not wise in your own conceits." Not very easy to understand, but what is the point here? The point is the a new commandment that the Lord gave us, in that we need to love one another.

John 13:34 KJV "A new commandment I give unto you, That ye love one another; as I have loved you, that ye also love one another." Lets look at the ESV and the NKJV.

ESV "A new commandment I give to you, that you love one another: just as I have loved you, you also are to love one another."

NKJV "A new commandment I give to you, that you love one another; as I have loved you, that you also love one another."

Did anyone notice the difference between the NKJV and the ESV? It after another ESV uses a semi-colon and adds "just", where the NKJV uses a colon. I see no need for the, thee, thou, ye, yeah, comest, hither, goest or the one I love "passeth against the wall" for male.

I Samuel 25:22 KJV "So and more also do God unto the enemies of David, if I leave of all that pertain to him by the morning light any that pisseth against the wall."

NKJV "May God do so, and more also, to the enemies of David, if I leave one male of all who belong to him by morning light."

The Textus Receptus or received text are very old and the Majority Text has lots more of the original manuscripts with it. If you watched Anderson for 2 hours you might be able to watch him in a debate about the issue of the KJV vs Modern translations. Have an open minds, I remember my days as a KJV only guy and was dumb enough to think "if it was good enough for the apostle Paul it good enough for me" I was a very new believer then. Once I did lots of research on the KJV and the way it is divided up into separate verses, it is an open invasion for taking verses out of text, many legalist groups, cults and false doctrine have come from the KJV, because of the way it is structured. Check out this video.

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=INtIF-a_nO0

 

[KJV1611]

[/FONT]

And what do you base this on? You have no more to go on than this definiion.

אֱלָהּʼĕlâhh, el-aw'; (Aramaic) corresponding to H433; God:—God, god.

Do you know of bible before Wescott and Hort that had son of the gods?

 

[tanakh]

However, the KJVOnlists won't use both. Ergo, the KJVO.

Surely that's their problem. Everyone else can read what they like. Sticking slavishly to one translation is the mark of many cults. The JW;s Mormons and Plymouth Brethren do it as well

 

[KJV1611]

The King Jimmy is a translation/transliteration.....end of story.....If you use a King Jimmy I recommend looking every word up in the original languages.......I use a King Jimmy, NASV, AMPLIFIED, TANACH, ESV AND ALWAYS go to the Greek and Hebrew to see what the words actually meant, including the verb tense especially in the N.T.......

2 Timothy 3:16 KJV
All scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness:

Does ALL scrripture include translations?

 

[KJV1611]

However, the KJVOnlists won't use both. Ergo, the KJVO.

Why anybody use bibles that contradict one another? How can I be born again from corruptible seed?

 

[John146]

The King Jimmy is a translation/transliteration.....end of story.....If you use a King Jimmy I recommend looking every word up in the original languages.......I use a King Jimmy, NASV, AMPLIFIED, TANACH, ESV AND ALWAYS go to the Greek and Hebrew to see what the words actually meant, including the verb tense especially in the N.T.......

That would make you becoming the final authority on what God has said. No thank you.

 

[KJV1611]

For me, the biggest problem with almost any English translation (KJV included) is that they chose the Hebrew Masoretic text for the Old Testament.

This text is full of errors and with anti-Christian bias.

Thats why when you compare your KJV New Testament quotations from the OT and your actual OT in the same Bible, you will get so much difference and it will seem to you that apostles were lying or with "very free license" regarding the OT prophecies.

I think you and I have gone through this before but I wouldn't mind going through it again... What are some of the errors in the Old Testament?

 

[John146]

So, I checked the ESV and KJV for the words "final authority" being together. They are not. So, no where in the Bible does it say the KJV is the final authority, because the words are just not there. No Bible version is the "final authority." But Jesus is!

Psalm 138:2 I will worship toward thy holy temple, and praise thy name for thy lovingkindness and for thy truth: for thou hast magnified thy word above all thy name.

God has magnified His word above His name. God's word stands as the final authority. I know this bothers you because you don't want to give up final authority. This is what's being taught in seminaries across our country. The devil seeks to pervert the word of God. How can he do this most effectively? Work through the seminaries that are producing pastors. What that produces is pastors perverting the word of God. It sounds like this, "A better way to say that is ..." Man becomes final authority and the congregation starts to trust the man instead of the Scriptures. That's a dangerous place to be.

 

[preacher4truth]

That would make you becoming the final authority on what God has said. No thank you.

The above reflects a grave error in thinking.

Think the above fallacious statement through; Actual study of Scripture, word meanings &c means the person(s) doing so have made themselves into the final authority according to the above statement.

This leads to an illogical conclusion: Never exegete or attempt to interpret Scripture, give word meanings, tenses of words &c; simply read it only. When "preaching" read it only; as soon as you interpret or give the sense, you've become the final authority.

Bible-olatry does this to people and they come up with absurdities as in the above quote. The quote isn't representative of Biblical truth whatsoever.

 

[KJV1611]

If we don't believe every word in the bible then we miss all the wonderful things God has hidden in his word. Like Easter. Did you know that the Acts translation of Easter is the ONLY place in the bible where passover is being talked about AFTER it had been fulfilled? The only place, I checked it. And it's the only place the KJV translators translated Pascha as Easter.... Things like that are why I put so much trust in the KJV, I call it God's signature on the work. It's pretty cool also in that maybe a handful of people in the whole world know this and to the rest of the world it's a stumbling block.

 

[KJV1611]

How can we understand what the kingdom of heaven is from the NASB?

John 3:13New American Standard Bible (NASB)

13 No one has ascended into heaven, but He who descended from heaven: the Son of Man.


In my case, I couldn't understand the kingdom of heaven without the same verse from the KJV.


John 3:13King James Version (KJV)

13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.

 

[KJV1611]

The seed is the word of God, how can we be born again of incorruptible seed if the seed is corrupt? We can't and that's why people can't see or enter into the kingdom of heaven and basically have no clue as to what the kingdom of heaven even is.