"Therefore we must be wary that, while the promise of entering his rest remains open, none of you may seem to have come short of it. 2 For we had good news proclaimed to us just as they did. But the message they heard did them no good, since they did not join in with those who heard it in faith." Hebrews 4:1-2 NET
Seriously, this says exactly what the KJV says, except that it makes more sense,and it is easier to understand.
"Therefore, since the promise of entering his rest still stands, let us be careful that none of you be found to have fallen short of it. 2 For we also have had the good news proclaimed to us, just as they did; but the message they heard was of no value to them, because they did not share the faith of those who obeyed" Hebrews 4:1-2 NIV
You know, sometimes I have to wonder, when people don't even know how to put a Bible address after the verse they have quoted. And that it means the same thing! And just for reference:
"Φοβηθῶμεν οὖν μήποτε καταλειπομένης ἐπαγγελίας εἰσελθεῖν εἰς τὴν κατάπαυσιν αὐτοῦ δοκῇ τις ἐξ ὑμῶν ὑστερηκέναι·2 καὶ γάρ ἐσμεν εὐηγγελισμένοι καθάπερ κἀκεῖνοι, ἀλλ’ οὐκ ὠφέλησεν ὁ λόγος τῆς ἀκοῆς ἐκείνους, μὴ συγκεκερασμένους τῇ πίστει τοῖς ἀκούσασιν." Hebrews 4:1-2 SBL Greek
Let's start with the first word of this passage. In Greek, true, it is the Aorist subjective passive, 1st person plural verb "to fear." However, οὖν is a pro-positive connector, which like de, only appears second in Greek, but should be translated first in English.
So from the get-go, the KJV translation is off. Therefore, all the versions I looked at do start the sentence with "therefore. Perhaps 400 years ago, the Bible translators didn't understand the significance of a pro-positive word, and translated the best they could, given their limited understanding?
As for the second half of verse 2, I can't make hide nor hair out of what it says, the Greek is easier, and of course, the modern verses do explain it, although NET is certainly a better translation.
