KING JAMES VERSION BIBLE VS. MODERN ENGLISH BIBLES

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Dino246

Senior Member
Jun 30, 2015
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There are very few words in the KJV that an average person won't know the meaning of and most of those meanings can be figured out by the context of the sentences.

Peradventure a person can't understand using that method, they can always look up the word in an English dictionary.
Interesting that you use "peradventure" (correctly, I would add)... another of the KJVo's thought it was a verb. Context alone wasn't enough to teach him.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Generally, we should look to context within Scripture first to understand what a word or phrase means, both in terms of the immediate context of the word in question, and how it is used elsewhere in Scripture. The challenge with this being the only approach is two-fold: there are quite a few words that appear only once; and we may assume the meaning of a word incorrectly.

With the first issue, there are many words appearing only once in the KJV... such as "collops" and "molid". You may get a sense of the meaning from context... but not necessarily the correct sense. Then we have a word such as authentein in 1 Timothy 2:12. It appears only once in the Greek and its meaning was not consistent in contemporary writings... so even a lexicon may not provide a certain definition. The meaning of the word is heavily coloured by one's belief about the role of women, and it becomes a circular argument.

With the second issue, there is another legitimate concern in that we assume the meanings of familiar words have not changed. Case in point: the word "conversation", in Ephesians 4:11. In 1611 it meant "character" or "the manner of one's life". Now it means "discussion". Such changes could lead to misunderstanding and even false doctrine. Having come across a few such words, I would be inclined to check most words against 1600's definitions (only available outside of Scripture) to ensure correct understanding.
I pretty much agree with you on this but I think the population of words that give this problem is very small and insignificant except for words like authetein. But I don't see what ones view of women has any thing to do with the meaning of the verse.
 
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Lucy-Pevensie

Senior Member
Dec 20, 2017
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Avoideth ye the wappened bibles!

[video=youtube;EavSbv3sVHU]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=EavSbv3sVHU[/video]
 
Dec 28, 2016
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God isn't surprised or anything about this of course, but here we have people trying to make KJVO cult disciples instead of preaching the Gospel and making disciples. Of course, a KJVO cultist will conflate the two. It "must needs be" as the deception runs deep among them.
 

graceNpeace

Senior Member
Aug 12, 2016
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There are very few words in the KJV that an average person won't know the meaning of and most of those meanings can be figured out by the context of the sentences.

Peradventure a person can't understand using that method, they can always look up the word in an English dictionary.
And yet you seem to trip over these misunderstood words in the KJV all the time - and construct strange doctrine as a result...
And we haven't even got to how you seem to misunderstand contemporary English as well...
 
Nov 23, 2013
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And yet you seem to trip over these misunderstood words in the KJV all the time - and construct strange doctrine as a result...
And we haven't even got to how you seem to misunderstand contemporary English as well...
Which misunderstood word have I tripped over?
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Clearly your memory is very short - try "begotten" for size...
What's your point?

be·got·ten
biˈɡätn/

  1. past participle of beget

be·get
bəˈɡet/
verb literary


  • 1.
    (typically of a man, sometimes of a man and a woman) bring (a child) into existence by the process of reproduction.
    "they hoped that the King might beget an heir by his new queen"
    [TABLE="class: vk_tbl vk_gy"]
    [TR]
    [TD="class: lr_dct_nyms_ttl"]synonyms:[/TD]
    [TD]father, sire, have, bring into the world, give life to, bring into being, spawn"he begat a son"[/TD]
    [/TR]
    [/TABLE]



  • 2.
    give rise to; bring about.
    "success begets further success"
    [TABLE="class: vk_tbl vk_gy"]
    [TR]
    [TD="class: lr_dct_nyms_ttl"]synonyms:[/TD]
    [TD]cause, give rise to, lead to, result in, bring about, create, produce, generate, engender, spawn, occasion, bring on, precipitate, prompt, provoke, kindle, trigger, spark off, touch off, stir up, whip up, induce, inspire, promote; literaryenkindle
    "violence begets violence"
    [/TD]
    [/TR]
    [/TABLE]
 

graceNpeace

Senior Member
Aug 12, 2016
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What's your point?

be·got·ten
biˈɡätn/

  1. past participle of beget

be·get
bəˈɡet/
verb literary


  • 1.
    (typically of a man, sometimes of a man and a woman) bring (a child) into existence by the process of reproduction.
    "they hoped that the King might beget an heir by his new queen"
    [TABLE="class: vk_tbl vk_gy"]
    [TR]
    [TD="class: lr_dct_nyms_ttl"]synonyms:[/TD]
    [TD]father, sire, have, bring into the world, give life to, bring into being, spawn"he begat a son"[/TD]
    [/TR]
    [/TABLE]



  • 2.
    give rise to; bring about.
    "success begets further success"
    [TABLE="class: vk_tbl vk_gy"]
    [TR]
    [TD="class: lr_dct_nyms_ttl"]synonyms:[/TD]
    [TD]cause, give rise to, lead to, result in, bring about, create, produce, generate, engender, spawn, occasion, bring on, precipitate, prompt, provoke, kindle, trigger, spark off, touch off, stir up, whip up, induce, inspire, promote; literaryenkindle
    "violence begets violence"
    [/TD]
    [/TR]
    [/TABLE]
And we covered the fact that several uses of the word "begotten" in the KJV cannot have this meaning, did we not?
Because the Greek word "monogenes", translated "begotten" in the KJV, has none of the meanings of the English word "begotten", rather, the word "monogenes" means 'unique'.

Surely even you cannot have forgotten this - after all you were were the one trying to push strange doctrine as a result of your misunderstanding of various texts containing the word "begotten"....

So, yes, your unworkable theory that one can just interpret the KJV according to a contemporary understanding of English, falls flat on its face!
 
Nov 24, 2017
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With the first issue, there are many words appearing only once in the KJV... such as "collops" and "molid".
"molid" is a name,

[FONT=&quot]“And the name of the wife of Abishur was Abihail, and she bare him Ahban, and Molid.” (2 Chronicles 2:29)[/FONT]
 
Nov 23, 2013
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And we covered the fact that several uses of the word "begotten" in the KJV cannot have this meaning, did we not?
Because the Greek word "monogenes", translated "begotten" in the KJV, has none of the meanings of the English word "begotten", rather, the word "monogenes" means 'unique'.

Surely even you cannot have forgotten this - after all you were were the one trying to push strange doctrine as a result of your misunderstanding of various texts containing the word "begotten"....

So, yes, your unworkable theory that one can just interpret the KJV according to a contemporary understanding of English, falls flat on its face!
I have no idea what monogenes means now, much less 2000 years ago. But I do know that Jesus was the ONLY BEGOTTEN son of God.... note that I said ONLY BEGOTTEN. I am a son of God but God did not supply his DNA to my mother like God did to Mary.

Why is this a problem for you?
 

graceNpeace

Senior Member
Aug 12, 2016
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I have [no] idea what monogenes means now, much less 2000 years ago. But I do know that Jesus was the ONLY BEGOTTEN son of God.... notElisha that I said ONLY BEGOTTEN. I am a son of God but God did not supply his DNA to my mother like God did to Mary.

Why is this a problem for you?
Your repeated assertion that the meaning of these words cannot be known, that they have been lost to history, is completely false - repetition will not make your false statements true!

The statement "only begotten Son of God" has nothing to do with having descendants or supplying DNA, it just means "unique Son of God" - thats it, nothing more and nothing less....

The problem, simply is this: every time anyone digs into your theological beliefs, we find it is based on a false understanding of Scripture.
It is clear that the root of the problem is your false view of Scripture - KJVOnlyism!
As a result you interpret, falsely, Scripture based on an incomplete understanding of contemporary English, never mind the English that was used by the translators of KJV in the 17th century, and you see this ignorance as a virtue!
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Here's one for you graceNpeace.

Why was Isaac Abraham's ONLY BEGOTTEN (monogenes) son?

This one takes complete faith that every word of God is right. The Bible doesn't contradict itself so Ishmael completely rules out the possibility that that verse is talking about an earthly birth.

Do you know why Issac was Abraham's ONLY BEGOTTEN Son? Here's a hint.

Genesis 17:4 King James Version (KJV)

4 As for me, behold, my covenant is with thee, and thou shalt be a father of many nations.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Your repeated assertion that the meaning of these words cannot be known, that they have been lost to history, is completely false - repetition will not make your false statements true!

The statement "only begotten Son of God" has nothing to do with having descendants or supplying DNA, it just means "unique Son of God" - thats it, nothing more and nothing less....

The problem, simply is this: every time anyone digs into your theological beliefs, we find it is based on a false understanding of Scripture.
It is clear that the root of the problem is your false view of Scripture - KJVOnlyism!
As a result you interpret, falsely, Scripture based on an incomplete understanding of contemporary English, never mind the English that was used by the translators of KJV in the 17th century, and you see this ignorance as a virtue!
Are you saying that Jesus was not the ONLY BEGOTTEN son of God? Your view is very strange and I'm having a hard time wrapping my head around what you believe.
 

graceNpeace

Senior Member
Aug 12, 2016
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Here's one for you graceNpeace.

Why was Isaac Abraham's ONLY BEGOTTEN (monogenes) son?

This one takes complete faith that every word of God is right. The Bible doesn't contradict itself so Ishmael completely rules out the possibility that that verse is talking about an earthly birth.

Do you know why Issac was Abraham's ONLY BEGOTTEN Son? Here's a hint.

Genesis 17:4 King James Version (KJV)

4 As for me, behold, my covenant is with thee, and thou shalt be a father of many nations.
Your ignorance precedes you again!

How would an OT word translated "begotten" have its meaning in the Greek word "monogenes"?????
The OT was written in Hebrew and Aramaic, not Greek!

This is a nonsensical question that just demonstrates your misunderstanding of everything Scripture....
Why don't you go and look up the Hebrew word that is used before making such silly assumptions!
 

Billyd

Senior Member
May 8, 2014
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For the first forty-five years of my life, the KJV was the only bible in my home. It was read and discussed daily. Through it my family developed an unquenchable desire to learn more about God.

A friend gave me a "Living Bible" and asked me to read it and let him know what I thought. All I could tell him was WOW! For the first time in my life, I found a book on the scriptures that anyone could read and understand. I had Bible study members actually partaking in discussions for the first time. It wasn't long before they were comparing the text of both Bibles to better understand God's word. Believe it or not, without exception, everyone still used the KJV as their primary Bible.

Over the years since, I have used several versions. I am still quite fond of my KJV, but I prefer the ESV. I carry 12 versions, along with a half dozen commentaries in my pocket every day. A far cry from my KJV New Testament with the Psalms of my youth. I love the ability actually study a scripture anytime, any where. Thank God for my Bible scripture comparison app, and all the resources that he gives me to hem me better understand his word.

By the way. I have no intention of throwing my KJV out, ever.
 
Nov 23, 2013
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Your ignorance precedes you again!

How would an OT word translated "begotten" have its meaning in the Greek word "monogenes"?????
The OT was written in Hebrew and Aramaic, not Greek!

This is a nonsensical question that just demonstrates your misunderstanding of everything Scripture....
Why don't you go and look up the Hebrew word that is used before making such silly assumptions!
Is this better lol. Just kind of proves one of my points that KJV uses the same consistent terminology from cover to cover.

Hebrews 11:17 King James Version (KJV)

17 By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
 

graceNpeace

Senior Member
Aug 12, 2016
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Is this better lol. Just kind of proves one of my points that KJV uses the same consistent terminology from cover to cover.

Hebrews 11:17 King James Version (KJV)

17 By faith Abraham, when he was tried, offered up Isaac: and he that had received the promises offered up his only begotten son,
Well, what was the Greek word used in that passage that is translated "begotten"?
Is it "monogenes" or some other word?
 

graceNpeace

Senior Member
Aug 12, 2016
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And that tells you that the emphasis in that text is the fact that Isaac was the ONLY UNIQUE son of Abraham.
Yes, Isaac was a descendant of Abraham, but that is NOT the emphasis here.

If the author wanted to stress the fact that Isaac was simply a descendant of Abraham then he would have used a different word: "gennaó" that simply means 'to give birth to'.
This word "gennaó" is the basis of the word used in the begets passages found in both Matthew and Luke where the human lines of descent of Jesus is detailed.