There are 2 problems with this post.
1) from a simple reading of this verse it seems to me that the Colossians are to have the epistle written to them, sent to the church of Laodiceans and have it read there. And that the epistle from Laodicea, written to the Laodiceans be read in Colossae. Now I could be wrong, but it seems pretty straight forward.
And this is a good example of my problem. If we can not come to a mutual agreement about this easy scripture, how will we ever be able to agree on complex, Godhead type scriptures.
Tell me how you read this scripture and maybe we can resolve our difference.
2) This kind of language: What, you didn't think I would CHECK your sources? Busted! Another untruth pedaled by the Mormon church... is truly anti-Christian. I would like to have a civil discussion about the gospel as represented in the scriptures. Maybe you can help me with some things that I struggle with. It would be good, however, not to accuse me of pedaling an untruth, everytime you think you have won a point.
So again, let me know what you think Colossians 4:16 is telling us.
In fact I open the question up to the forum to answer the above question. Thank you.
You are trying to read stuff into the text that just is not there. REMEMBER corresponding between Churches was the ONLY means of communication between the Churches two thousand years ago. THUS there would have numerous letters going back and forth. Except for the possible occasional letters, Paul knew little of the day by day life and writings of John. ONLY when they were copied and sent to all the Churches, are they letters that the Apostles, KNEW were INSPIRED BY GOD. So if it was a letter sent to Laodicea that Paul is wanting the Laodiceans to read and pass on to the Colossians, it may be one written by PAUL and not THEE LETTER TO THE LAODICEANS DICTATED BY THE LORD JESUS CHRIST AND PENNED BY JOHN. You will see that is exactly how the New American Standard Bible translated it, as they thought it implied that Paul wrote it.
HOWEVER, the NASB did put a footnote there explaining that Literal translation from the GREEK only stated
the letter and not
my letter.
Colossians 4:16 (NASB)
[SUP]
16 [/SUP] When this letter is read among you, have it also read in the church of the Laodiceans; and you, for your part read
[Lit the] my letter that is coming from Laodicea.
Paul was in the CHURCH PLANTING BUSINESS, and then he would move on, but kept in touch with his new congregations via letters, to encourage them and answer any of their questions. Much the same as we are doing now. THUS very few of those letters ever ended up in our New Testament. REMEMBER we ONLY HAVE THE HIGHLIGHTS of Life of Jesus Christ and the Apostles, NOT the TOTAL historical event by event, conversation by conversation of everything that happened:
John 21:25 (NASB)
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25 [/SUP] And there are also many other things which Jesus did, which if they *were written in detail, I suppose that even the world itself *would not contain the books that *would be written.
So in that verse Col. 4:16, I see only the normal way Churches communicated at the time of PAUL, and maybe Paul was trying to get them to depend on each other for encouragement, so that they would not be devastated when he would be martyred.
But how do we come to an AGREEMENT, perhaps by looking at the entire context, which is actually RULE number 1., and RULE number 2. is do not forget to do RULE number 1.
Colossians 4:12-16 (HCSB)
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12 [/SUP]
Epaphras, who is one of you, a slave of Christ Jesus, greets you.
He is always contending for you in his prayers, so that you can stand mature and fully assured in everything God wills.
[SUP]
13 [/SUP] For I testify about him that
he works hard for you, for those in Laodicea, and for those in Hierapolis.
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14 [/SUP] Luke, the dearly loved physician, and Demas greet you.
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15 [/SUP] Give my greetings to the brothers in Laodicea, and to Nympha and the church in her home.
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16 [/SUP] When this letter has been read among you, have it read also in the church of the Laodiceans; and see that you also read the letter from Laodicea.
NOW let's see if we can tell who wrote the letter by reading the WHOLE CONTEXT, in the Holman's Christian Standard Bible.
John is NOT even mentioned, and if JOHN wrote something from GOD back then, PAUL would have gave HIM full credit, just like HE gave LUKE and Demas full credit for passing a greeting to the Colossians. SO no mention of JOHN at ALL, indicates this letter is NOT the one John wrote in Chapter Three of Revelation. AND if Paul had written it, why would Paul ask them to GREET the Laodiceans AGAIN after writing them personally? Luke does not seem to even personally know the Laodiceans, so we can rule him out too. But WHO KNOWS THEM PERSONALLY and is DEEPLY CONCERNED ABOUT THEM.
Colossians 4:12-13 (NASB)
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12 [/SUP]
Epaphras,
who is one of your number, a bondslave of Jesus Christ, sends you his greetings,
always laboring earnestly for you in his prayers, that you may stand perfect and fully assured in all the will of God.
[SUP]
13 [/SUP] For I testify for him that he
has a deep concern for you and for those who are in Laodicea and Hierapolis.
Colossians 4:12-13 (NKJV)
[SUP]
12 [/SUP]
Epaphras, who is one of you, a bondservant of Christ, greets you,
always laboring fervently for you in prayers, that you may stand perfect and complete in all the will of God.
[SUP]
13 [/SUP] For I bear him witness that he
has a great zeal for you, and those who are in Laodicea, and those in Hierapolis.
How does PAUL KNOW THIS ABOUT EPAPHRAS, is it not obvious that
EPAPHRAS wrote Paul, sending him a copy of what he wrote to the Laodiceans?
By the way,
Paul was likely beheaded by the Romans, under Emperor Nero, sometime around May or June of 68 A.D. Paul wrote the letter to the Colossians in 62 A.D., and John penned the Book of Revelation in 96 A.D.
