Religion hides God knowledge with doctrines

[Nehemiah6]

Nehemiah6 does "world" here mean "world" in John 18:20 the same way as John 1:29 and I John 2:2?

According to the total teaching of the Bible regarding the atoning work of Christ, "the world" means all of humanity in John 1:29, John 3:16, and 1 John 2:2. Since all men are sinners, and ALL SINS were laid on Christ (who tasted death for every man) there can be absolutely no question that Christ died for the sins of the whole world (all human beings).

John 18:20

“Jesus answered him, “I have spoken openly to the world. I have always taught in synagogues and in the temple, where all Jews come together. I have said nothing in secret.”

Here it is crystal clear that "the world" simply mean "publicly" as opposed to "in secret".

Acts 2:39 “For the promise is for you and for your children and for all who are far off, everyone whom the Lord our God calls to himself.”

This was addressed to the Jews in Jerusalem. But the Jews were also scattered throughout the Roman Empire, as well as in other parts of the world. So "all who are far off" is a reference to Jews outside of Palestine. And as we see in the missionary journeys of Paul, he visited every synagogue and preached first to the Jews.

Revelation 5:9-10

“And they sang a new song, saying, “Worthy are you to take the scroll and to open its seals, for you were slain, and by your blood you ransomed people for God from every tribe and language and people and nation, 10 and you have made them a kingdom and priests to our God, and they shall reign on the earth.”...
Revelation 7:9-10 “After this I looked, and behold, a great multitude that no one could number, from every nation, from all tribes and peoples and languages, standing before the throne and before the Lamb, clothed in white robes, with palm branches in their hands, 10and crying out with a loud voice, “Salvation belongs to our God who sits on the throne, and to the Lamb!”...
Revelation 13:7-8 “Also it was allowed to make war on the saints and to conquer them. And authority was given it over every tribe and people and language and nation, 8and all who dwell on earth will worship it, everyone whose name has not been written before the foundation of the world in the book of life of the Lamb who was slain.”...
Revelation 14:6-7 “Then I saw another angel flying directly overhead, with an eternal gospel to proclaim to those who dwell on earth, to every nation and tribe and language and people. 7And he said with a loud voice, “Fear God and give him glory, because the hour of his judgment has come, and worship him who made heaven and earth, the sea and the springs of water.”

All these passages actually reinforce the truth that Christ died for the sins of the whole world. So every tribe, language, nation, and people are represented within the Church, and that is because the Gospel is preached throughout the world of humanity.

If indeed the word "world" or "kosmos" means everyone in the world, which you have interpreted to mean that the Father laid the sin of every person in the world on Jesus. That would make the Father an unjust judge and we know that the Father is not unjust, He is a just judge, righteous and up right in all His ways.

Quite the opposite. God's justice would have demanded that every sinner pay for his own sins. But God's grace laid every sin upon the Lamb of God, and the demands of God's justice were met at the Cross. Which means that all sinners can be saved if all will repent and believe on the Lord Jesus Christ.

What I would like to know as well is, does "all" mean every single Jew came together there [Jn 18:20]?

A close look at the context should clarify any questions.

Jesus answered him, I spake openly to the world [the public]; I ever taught in the synagogue, and in the temple, whither the Jews always resort; and in secret have I said nothing.

What was Jesus saying? He had already told us that He had come to the lost sheep of the house of Israel, so He always taught in the synagogues and in the temple -- PUBLICLY AND OPENLY. This has nothing to do with what you began to discuss regarding John 1:29 etc.

 

[John146]

According to the total teaching of the Bible regarding the atoning work of Christ, "the world" means all of humanity in John 1:29, John 3:16, and 1 John 2:2. Since all men are sinners, and ALL SINS were laid on Christ (who tasted death for every man) there can be absolutely no question that Christ died for the sins of the whole world (all human beings).

Here it is crystal clear that "the world" simply mean "publicly" as opposed to "in secret".

This was addressed to the Jews in Jerusalem. But the Jews were also scattered throughout the Roman Empire, as well as in other parts of the world. So "all who are far off" is a reference to Jews outside of Palestine. And as we see in the missionary journeys of Paul, he visited every synagogue and preached first to the Jews.

All these passages actually reinforce the truth that Christ died for the sins of the whole world. So every tribe, language, nation, and people are represented within the Church, and that is because the Gospel is preached throughout the world of humanity.

Quite the opposite. God's justice would have demanded that every sinner pay for his own sins. But God's grace laid every sin upon the Lamb of God, and the demands of God's justice were met at the Cross. Which means that all sinners can be saved if all will repent and believe on the Lord Jesus Christ.

A close look at the context should clarify any questions.

Jesus answered him, I spake openly to the world [the public]; I ever taught in the synagogue, and in the temple, whither the Jews always resort; and in secret have I said nothing.

What was Jesus saying? He had already told us that He had come to the lost sheep of the house of Israel, so He always taught in the synagogues and in the temple -- PUBLICLY AND OPENLY. This has nothing to do with what you began to discuss regarding John 1:29 etc.

To the Calvinist, the meaning of the word "world" will jump back and forth in Scripture to fit their man made doctrine. For instance:

John 14:27 Peace I leave with you, my peace I give unto you: not as the world giveth, give I unto you. Let not your heart be troubled, neither let it be afraid.

This obviously is not talking about the world of the elect, but only the known world of the living at that time. Whereas, other places in John the word "world" points to the elect. Come on Nehemiah, play the game.

 

[John146]

John 18:20 is an interesting verse, not only does Jesus say that He spoke to the world, but He also says that all Jews come together here. According to your interpretation Jesus spoke to the world openly or every person that lived at that time.

What I would like to know as well is, does "all" mean every single Jew came together there?

In the context, Jesus is simply stating that He taught in the synagogues and in the temple. These places are where all the Jews come together. The text is not saying that Jesus taught all the Jews, every one of them, in these places.

 

[JaumeJ]

Joh 10:17 Therefore doth the Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I may take it again.
Joh 10:18 No one taketh it away from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment received I from my Father.

 

[Johnny_B]

According to the total teaching of the Bible regarding the atoning work of Christ, "the world" means all of humanity in John 1:29, John 3:16, and 1 John 2:2. Since all men are sinners, and ALL SINS were laid on Christ (who tasted death for every man) there can be absolutely no question that Christ died for the sins of the whole world (all human beings).

So you are not going to answer the question, as to the word “world” if it means the world as you say, then Jesus spoke openly to the world, all mankind, but you will not stick to your interpretation of “world” because you and I both know that Jesus did not speak to the world or all mankind as you interpret it. Which we will see next.

Here it is crystal clear that "the world" simply mean "publicly" as opposed to "in secret".

The Greek word “kosmos” to mean publicly? So let me understand this, What is crystal clear is you misinterpreted “world” as the word “openly” which is the Greek the word “parrhēsia” Vine’s Expository Dictionary of the New Testament. John 7:26 and 18:20 “of His public testimony” So your translation of John 18:20b “I spake openly to the world” would be “I spake publicly to the public,”

This was addressed to the Jews in Jerusalem. But the Jews were also scattered throughout the Roman Empire, as well as in other parts of the world. So "all who are far off" is a reference to Jews outside of Palestine. And as we see in the missionary journeys of Paul, he visited every synagogue and preached first to the Jews.

My brother why do you not quote Scripture, we know the Gospel is to the Jew first then to the Gentile? Here’s what they say, Acts 13:43, 47 “And after the meeting of the synagogue broke up, ….behold, we are turning to the Gentiles. 47For so the Lord has commanded us, saying, “‘I have made you a light for the Gentiles, that you may bring salvation to the ends of the earth.’” So by your interpretation not only the Jews in the Romans Empire, but the Gentiles as well, they were “far off”

All these passages actually reinforce the truth that Christ died for the sins of the whole world. So every tribe, language, nation, and people are represented within the Church, and that is because the Gospel is preached throughout the world of humanity.

N6 maybe we are talking about the same thing, yes Christ died for all peoples, He just did not died for every man, women and child.

Quite the opposite. God's justice would have demanded that every sinner pay for his own sins. But God's grace laid every sin upon the Lamb of God, and the demands of God's justice were met at the Cross. Which means that all sinners can be saved if all will repent and believe on the Lord Jesus Christ.

Isaiah 53:6 “All we like sheep have gone astray;we have turned—every one—to his own way; and the Lord has laid on him the iniquity of us all.”

Here the Prophet is telling us that the Lord laid the iniquity of us all on the Lord, he is not identifying himself with those that are not the Lord people, the Prophet is one of the Lord’s people.

A close look at the context should clarify any questions.

Jesus answered him, I spake openly to the world [the public]; I ever taught in the synagogue, and in the temple, whither the Jews always resort; and in secret have I said nothing.

What was Jesus saying? He had already told us that He had come to the lost sheep of the house of Israel, so He always taught in the synagogues and in the temple -- PUBLICLY AND OPENLY. This has nothing to do with what you began to discuss regarding John 1:29 etc.

I ask you what the Greek word “kosmos” meant, because it is the same word used in John 1:29, 3:16 and I John 2:2 and the context does not change the meaning to taht degree and there is no Dictionary or Lexicon that translates it to mean “publicly” as you said in any context. John 1:29, 3:16, 18:20 or I John 2:2 make no sense if your interpretation is correct as “kosmos” being publicly. John 1:29 "who takes away the sins of the public" 3:16 "For God so loved the public" 18:20 "I spoke openly to the publicy" and I John 2:2 "and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole publicly." As you can see your interpertation of the word "kosmos" does not work.

 

[Johnny_B]

In the context, Jesus is simply stating that He taught in the synagogues and in the temple. These places are where all the Jews come together. The text is not saying that Jesus taught all the Jews, every one of them, in these places.

Thanks for proving my point.

 

[Johnny_B]

II Timothy 2:10-13 “Therefore I endure all things for the sake of the elect, that they also may obtain the salvation which is in Christ Jesus with eternal glory. 11This is a faithful saying: for if we died with Him, we shall also live with Him. 12If we endure, we shall also reign with Him. If we deny Him, He also will deny us. 13If we are faithless, He remains faithful; He cannot deny Himself.”

Jesus died for His elect and if we die with Him it is proof that we are His elect.

 

[Nehemiah6]

As you can see your interpertation of the word "kosmos" does not work.

Had you gone to Thayer's Greek Lexicon you could have saved yourself some embarrassment.

The context will determine the meaning.

Thayer's Greek Lexicon
STRONGS NT 2889: κόσμος

κόσμος, κόσμου, ὁ;

1. an apt and harmonious arrangement or constitution, order.


2. ornament, decoration, adornment:


3. the world, i. e. the universe


4. the circle of the earth, the earth


5. the inhabitants of the world - PLEASE NOTE CAREFULLY


6. "the ungodly multitude; the whole mass of men alienated from God, and therefore hostile to the cause of Christ"


7. "worldly affairs; the aggregate of things earthly;


8. any aggregate or general collection of particulars of any sort

 

[Nehemiah6]

Jesus died for His elect and if we die with Him it is proof that we are His elect.

AND EACH AND EVERYONE WHO BELIEVES BECOMES ONE OF THE ELECT.

BUT THE BELIEVING COMES FIRST.