The biblical canon...any books missing from the Bible that ought to be there?

[kennethcadwell]

Granted, while I do use Modern Translations to update the "Early Modern English" (1600's English) to "Late Modern English" (Today's English), the NKJV makes huge corruptions to God's Word (i.e. the KJV).

It changes:

"soul" (KJV) to....... "living being" (NKJV) (Genesis 2:7)
"sodomites (KJV) to "perverted persons" (NKJV) (1 Kings 14:24, 15:12, etc.)
"which are saved (KJV) to "who are being saved (NKJV) (1 Corinthians 1:18)
"bewitched the people (KJV) to "astonished the people (NKJV) (Acts 8:9)
"They were amazed" (KJV) to "They are dismayed" (NKJV) (Job 32:15)
"repented" (KJV) to "relent" (NKJV) (Matthew 21:32)
"wounds" (KJV) to "tasty triffles" (NKJV) (Proverbs 18:8) Tasty triffles? Really?
"dishonesty" (KJV) to "shame" (NKJV) (2 Corinthians 4:2)
"and let not thy soul spare for his crying." (KJV) to "and do not set your on his destruction." (NKJV) (Proverbs 19:18)

In Isaiah 11:3, the entire phrase "And shall make Him of quick understanding" in the KJV is eliminated in the NKJV, NWT, NASV, NIV, and RSV.

In the footnoes on Daniel 3:25, the NKJV casts doubt on the words, "Son of God" by placing in the footnote: "Or: a son of the gods."

In 2 Timothy 2:15, the KJV says, "Study to shew thyself approved unto God." The NKJV and NASV change "study" to "be diligent." The NIV and RSV change the word "study" to "DO YOUR BEST." There is a big difference in me "studying" versus "being diligent" and or "doing your best."

"to take on" (KJV) to "give aid" (NKJV) (Hebrews 2:16).
Jesus did not take on the nature of angels. Big difference to what the NKJV says.

(KJV) "For verily he took not on [him the nature of] angels; but he took on [him] the seed of Abraham."​

(NKJV) "For indeed He does not give aid to angels, but He does give aid to the seed of Abraham."​

"God" (KJV) to "divine" (NKJV) (1 Peter 3:20)
I know God was longsuffering as He waited in the days of Noah.
But in the world does "divine longsuffering supposed to mean?

(KJV) "Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water."​

(NKJV) "who formerly were disobedient, when once the Divine longsuffering waited in the days of Noah, while [the] ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water."​

"Corrupt" (KJV) to "Peddle" (NKJV) (2 Corinthians 2:17)
The NKJV hides that which it does.
The NKJV corrupts the Word of God elimating the word "corrupt" to some kind of selling of the Word.

(KJV) "For we are not as many, which corrupt the word of God: but as of sincerity, but as of God, in the sight of God speak we in Christ."​

(NKJV) "For we are not, as so many, peddling the word of God; but as of sincerity, but as from God, we speak in the sight of God in Christ."​

Those are not corruptions Jason, as when Jesus breathed the breath of life in man he did become a living being.
The body without the spirit/soul is dead and not living, so it is not a corruption as man does not become a soul. The soul is what God is placing in the body to become a living being. Sodomites are perverted people, and changing to those who are being saved is not corruption either as the believing in the Lord is shown to be a continuous belief that leads to salvation. I do not follow the false teaching that people are saved immediately at day one, because the Lord Himself said those who endure to the end will be saved. Not you are saved and then endure to the end.
Word play and using now day language that people can understand does not corrupt the word unless it blatantly changes the context. The examples you give do not do that and changing the word peddle from corrupt does not either if you take it in proper context, because one who corrupts His word does peddle/squander away their chance at eternal life. If you are dishonest then you are shameful, the word play is within all bibles as well as the KJV as some words we have in English that were used do not mean exactly what the Hebrew and Greek words said.

Your right that the NKJV changed some of the words to modern English words we now use mainly to help the readers understand, but the main purpose of the NKJV was to fix the translation errors in the KJV. If you do not believe that then that is on you, but those errors can be easily found in study, and this does not come from just atheists as you previously brought up. There is many well known biblical scholars throughout history who have shown these errors as well.

 

[Jason0047]

Those are not corruptions Jason, as when Jesus breathed the breath of life in man he did become a living being.
The body without the spirit/soul is dead and not living, so it is not a corruption as man does not become a soul. The soul is what God is placing in the body to become a living being. Sodomites are perverted people, and changing to those who are being saved is not corruption either as the believing in the Lord is shown to be a continuous belief that leads to salvation. I do not follow the false teaching that people are saved immediately at day one, because the Lord Himself said those who endure to the end will be saved. Not you are saved and then endure to the end.
Word play and using now day language that people can understand does not corrupt the word unless it blatantly changes the context. The examples you give do not do that and changing the word peddle from corrupt does not either if you take it in proper context, because one who corrupts His word does peddle/squander away their chance at eternal life. If you are dishonest then you are shameful, the word play is within all bibles as well as the KJV as some words we have in English that were used do not mean exactly what the Hebrew and Greek words said.

Your right that the NKJV changed some of the words to modern English words we now use mainly to help the readers understand, but the main purpose of the NKJV was to fix the translation errors in the KJV. If you do not believe that then that is on you, but those errors can be easily found in study, and this does not come from just atheists as you previously brought up. There is many well known biblical scholars throughout history who have shown these errors as well.

No, Revelation 6:9 says, "And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held:"

Also, Scripture mentions how God has a soul, too.

Does God Have a Soul? | Learn The Bible

As for sodomites versus corrupt people. There is a difference because one who is an abuser sexually in the wrong way and the other who is just corrupt. Big difference.

As for "peddle" versus "corrupt" the Word of God. No way. One means to corrupt and the other means to sell. Two different meanings.

No, the NKJV was not a fix to the KJV. It was a corruption.

Why do you think the NKJV has the age of aquarious new age symbol on some of it's Bibles? This symbol is used in the occult.

If you believe there is an error in the KJV, I will be happy to show you otherwise that it is not an error (But it can be properly understood when looking at the rest of Scripture). Do you want to see the explanations? Or do you just want to believe what you want to believe?

 

[kennethcadwell]

We were talking about the testing for canonization of extra-biblical sources weren't we?

Yes and that standard of testing them applies to the other writings as well.
Do we through out the writings from the Apostle Timothy just because the are not in the bible, you can if you want to but that does not mean we have to or they can not be used for instruction and learning also. If we are to go by just the scriptures alone, then God would not direct people to others and push for keeping the congregation. God leads us to others to instruct us in His ways, and some times those others come from other writings, sources, and books that are not in the bible.
I do believe the written word of God has final authority, but if we are limit to just it then God would not have inspired other men of God to write down their walk in the faith as well for others to have and read.

 

[Jason0047]

Please take note, that I explained the word "ghost"; It can be located on the last post of the previous page.

 

[Jason0047]

Again, look at Hebrews 2:16.

Is this passage saying "Jesus did not take on the nature of angels" or is it talking about "giving aid to angels"?

One can clearly see that this is a corruption if you were to read the entire chapter.

 

[Viligant_Warrior]

Do we, peoples of the earth, have the full written records of God's Word translated into our languages ...

Yes. Unequivocally. Beyond doubt. Beyond a shadow, even.

... is anything missing?

Nope, nada, het, ノー, ոչ, ne, жоқ, nru, немає, zilch, big fat goose egg, uh-uh, you kiddin' me?

If there was anything man had left out in his "choosing" the canon, God would take care of it. It would be there.

 

[Jason0047]

No, Revelation 6:9 says, "And when he had opened the fifth seal, I saw under the altar the souls of them that were slain for the word of God, and for the testimony which they held:"

Also, Scripture mentions how God has a soul, too.

Does God Have a Soul? | Learn The Bible

As for sodomites versus corrupt people. There is a difference because one who is an abuser sexually in the wrong way and the other who is just corrupt. Big difference.

As for "peddle" versus "corrupt" the Word of God. No way. One means to corrupt and the other means to sell. Two different meanings.

No, the NKJV was not a fix to the KJV. It was a corruption.

Why do you think the NKJV has the age of aquarious new age symbol on some of it's Bibles? This symbol is used in the occult.

If you believe there is an error in the KJV, I will be happy to show you otherwise that it is not an error (But it can be properly understood when looking at the rest of Scripture). Do you want to see the explanations? Or do you just want to believe what you want to believe?

More on the word "soul":

Acts 2:27
"Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption."

So was this person being spoken of alive when they were in hell?

It says, "leave my SOUL in hell."

Hell is a spiritual place.

 

[kennethcadwell]

In the following report, we have analyzed certain translation and textual errors in the King James Version which may be used to promote the false gospel of the Antichrist. In this analysis, each KJV error is compared with the Greek Textus Receptus, readings in English translations before 1611, also the Latin Vulgate, the Syriac Peshitta and the Septuagint when applicable, and the NKJV. We have included other relevant information, such as the origin and history of the word (Etymology) and the pagan meaning and associations of the word (Mythology), to show the potential problems with these mistranslations in the end time deception. Textual errors in the KJV are also included, that is instances where the KJV fails to translate a word that is in the Greek text, thereby giving opportunity for a false interpretation of the verse.
​

[TABLE="width: 1096, align: center"]
[TR]
[TD]KING JAMES VERSION

1. HOLY GHOST
2. JEHOVAH
3. JUPITER & MERCURIUS
4. MOUNT SION
5. NEW TESTAMENT
6. A FALLING AWAY
7. GREAT TRIBULATION
8. ANTICHRIST
9. IN THE HAND/FOREHEAD
10. GIANTS
11. END OF THE WORLD
12. EASTER
[/TD]
[TD]GREEK / HEBREW

1. HOLY SPIRIT
2. YHWH
3. ZEUS & HERMES
4. MOUNT ZION
5. NEW COVENANT
6. THE FALLING AWAY
7. THE GREAT TRIBULATION
8. THE ANTICHRIST
9. ON THE HAND/FOREHEAD
10. NEPHILIM
11. END OF THE AGE
12. PASSOVER

[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]



This is just a few of them, just like the KJV says the Red sea when the actual translation is sea of reeds.......

 

[kennethcadwell]

More on the word "soul":

Acts 2:27
"Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption."

So was this person being spoken of alive when they were in hell?

It says, "leave my SOUL in hell."

Matthew 10:28

And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.


The body and soul are two separate parts of a person to make them a living being, when man kills another man they only kill the body. But God can destroy both the body and soul in the lake of fire.

 

[Jason0047]

In the following report, we have analyzed certain translation and textual errors in the King James Version which may be used to promote the false gospel of the Antichrist. In this analysis, each KJV error is compared with the Greek Textus Receptus, readings in English translations before 1611, also the Latin Vulgate, the Syriac Peshitta and the Septuagint when applicable, and the NKJV. We have included other relevant information, such as the origin and history of the word (Etymology) and the pagan meaning and associations of the word (Mythology), to show the potential problems with these mistranslations in the end time deception. Textual errors in the KJV are also included, that is instances where the KJV fails to translate a word that is in the Greek text, thereby giving opportunity for a false interpretation of the verse.
​

[TABLE="width: 1096, align: center"]
[TR]
[TD]KING JAMES VERSION

1. HOLY GHOST
2. JEHOVAH
3. JUPITER & MERCURIUS
4. MOUNT SION
5. NEW TESTAMENT
6. A FALLING AWAY
7. GREAT TRIBULATION
8. ANTICHRIST
9. IN THE HAND/FOREHEAD
10. GIANTS
11. END OF THE WORLD
12. EASTER[/TD]
[TD]GREEK / HEBREW

1. HOLY SPIRIT
2. YHWH
3. ZEUS & HERMES
4. MOUNT ZION
5. NEW COVENANT
6. THE FALLING AWAY
7. THE GREAT TRIBULATION
8. THE ANTICHRIST
9. ON THE HAND/FOREHEAD
10. NEPHILIM
11. END OF THE AGE
12. PASSOVER[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]



This is just a few of them, just like the KJV says the Red sea when the actual translation is sea of reeds.......

1. Already explained the word "ghost." Look up the origin of the word.
2. The Jews substituted "Lord" for his Holy name for thousands of years so to protect and respect His name.
3. Satan also means the devil. The fact that Zeus and hermes went by different names does not change the meaning.
4. "Z" to "S" People in Brazil spell it as "Brasil"; But the U.S. and other countries call it "Brazil." Doesn't change anything.
5. Again, different words / same meaning. The New Testament is the New Covenant.
6. Nitpick. Same meaning.
7. Nitpick. Same meaning.
8. Nitpick. Same meaning.
9. Mr. Strong and his college buddies were not inspired by God. They were human.
10. Look up the origin of the word, "world", it says it is a long period of existence.
11. Later, the word "Easter" became paganized. Again, people used different words to describe the same event. Look up the origin of the word "East." (Which is what the word "Easter" is based on).

 

[Jason0047]

Matthew 10:28

And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell.


The body and soul are two separate parts of a person to make them a living being, when man kills another man they only kill the body. But God can destroy both the body and soul in the lake of fire.

Matthew 10:28 is dealing with a wicked person who has been bodily resurrected so as to be destroyed in the Lake of Fire BOTH body and soul.

Acts 2:27 says, do not leave my SOUL in hell.

Acts 2:27 is not in reference to the wicked being cast bodily into the Lake of Fire.

 

[Jason0047]

Again, we have to understand that there is a difference between "Early Modern English" (1600's English) and "Late Modern English" (Today's English). To assume that we spoke and written the same English back then is just silly. Words change with the passage of time. For example: The word "gay" used to primarliy be used in reference to being happy. But today, that word primarily has a different meaning now.

 

[michael56]

In the following report, we have analyzed certain translation and textual errors in the King James Version which may be used to promote the false gospel of the Antichrist. In this analysis, each KJV error is compared with the Greek Textus Receptus, readings in English translations before 1611, also the Latin Vulgate, the Syriac Peshitta and the Septuagint when applicable, and the NKJV. We have included other relevant information, such as the origin and history of the word (Etymology) and the pagan meaning and associations of the word (Mythology), to show the potential problems with these mistranslations in the end time deception. Textual errors in the KJV are also included, that is instances where the KJV fails to translate a word that is in the Greek text, thereby giving opportunity for a false interpretation of the verse.
​

[TABLE="width: 1096, align: center"]
[TR]
[TD]KING JAMES VERSION

1. HOLY GHOST
2. JEHOVAH
3. JUPITER & MERCURIUS
4. MOUNT SION
5. NEW TESTAMENT
6. A FALLING AWAY
7. GREAT TRIBULATION
8. ANTICHRIST
9. IN THE HAND/FOREHEAD
10. GIANTS
11. END OF THE WORLD
12. EASTER
[/TD]
[TD]GREEK / HEBREW

1. HOLY SPIRIT
2. YHWH
3. ZEUS & HERMES
4. MOUNT ZION
5. NEW COVENANT
6. THE FALLING AWAY
7. THE GREAT TRIBULATION
8. THE ANTICHRIST
9. ON THE HAND/FOREHEAD
10. NEPHILIM
11. END OF THE AGE
12. PASSOVER

[/TD]
[/TR]
[/TABLE]



This is just a few of them, just like the KJV says the Red sea when the actual translation is sea of reeds.......

But the Christian can rely on the Holy Spirit to interpret the truth of the message written in KJV, as He can be relied on with other translations also, he is not limited to working through the Greek for instance.

 

[JaumeJ]

There are many people who know much about writings that ae included and excluded from the Bible as we know it today, the various Protestant versions, RC and EOC versions; I am not one of those folks.

Perhaps my understanding of God's Word and how it became as it is today is over simplified for most minds, but this is what I believe. I believe the Word has been preserved by God no matter how many scholars may have thought to perhaps improve upon it or make it more understandable. No matter, it has come down to us today with overwhelming blessings in understanding for all peoples.

It is possible there are books missing. It is possible there are books that may not be necessary. If either is so, God will be certain to show mankind which are what be it His will.

The original King James translations included the Apocrypha. I do not know the reasoning for rmoving it from most Protestant Bibles, but it is certain whether it is included or not, it will make no difference in the Gospel as delivered by Jesus Christ in both Testaments. Nothng will change the Salvation process as taught in the Gospels of the Evangelists.

Perhaps I have contributed something here, and perhaps I have contributed nothing, but it is worthy of some meditation I think.

God bless all who are in Jesus Christ.....

 

[Jason0047]

Matthew 10:28 is dealing with a wicked person who has been bodily resurrected so as to be destroyed in the Lake of Fire BOTH body and soul.

In fact, Matthew 10:28 by our Modern English understanding should translate the words "Hell" or "Gehenna" as the "Lake of Fire." However, I have not seen a translation render it in this way. But again, back in the 1600's, they referenced the word "hell" as talking about the "Lake of Fire," too. In other words, it is not a mistranslation but merely how they communicated certain words back then.

 

[kennethcadwell]

1. Already explained the word "ghost." Look up the origin of the word.
2. The Jews substituted "Lord" for his Holy name for thousands of years so to protect and respect His name.
3. Satan also means the devil. The fact that Zeus and hermes went by different names does not change the meaning.
4. "Z" to "S" People in Brazil spell it as "Brasil"; But the U.S. and other countries call it "Brazil." Doesn't change anything.
5. Again, different words / same meaning. The New Testament is the New Covenant.
6. Nitpick. Same meaning.
7. Nitpick. Same meaning.
8. Nitpick. Same meaning.
9. Mr. Strong and his college buddies were not inspired by God. They were human.
10. Look up the origin of the word, "world", it says it is a long period of existence.
11. Later, the word "Easter" became paganized. Again, people used different words to describe the same event. Look up the origin of the word "East." (Which is what the word "Easter" is based on).

Matthew 10:28 is dealing with a wicked person who has been bodily resurrected so as to be destroyed in the Lake of Fire BOTH body and soul.

Acts 2:27 says, do not leave my SOUL in hell.

Acts 2:27 is not in reference to the wicked being cast bodily into the Lake of Fire.

Yet you prove my point about word play, and they did use different wording then what was in the original Hebrew and Greek. You try to defend it by saying the whole different wording yet same meaning debate, but the fact still remains that if the original says one word if you replace it with another even if it has the same meaning is a mistranslation.
If the original says Holy Spirit then by using the word ghost would be a mistranslation as that was not the word that was used. Like I said it does not change the salvation issue, but it does show by the translators using words that were not in the original is a translation error.

Once again just like the Red Sea translation, as the original Hebrew wording says Sea of Reeds.


Matthew 10:28 is dealing with judgment but it clearly shows that the soul can not be destroyed by man, as man can only kill the body. And the scripture in Acts 2:27 is not speaking of after death, as the context is that by God's guidance through the Holy Spirit will lead our souls from not facing hell and lake of fire that we were once headed to before we turned ourselves to the Lord.

 

[Jason0047]

There are many people who know much about writings that ae included and excluded from the Bible as we know it today, the various Protestant versions, RC and EOC versions; I am not one of those folks.

Perhaps my understanding of God's Word and how it became as it is today is over simplified for most minds, but this is what I believe. I believe the Word has been preserved by God no matter how many scholars may have thought to perhaps improve upon it or make it more understandable. No matter, it has come down to us today with overwhelming blessings in understanding for all peoples.

It is possible there are books missing. It is possible there are books that may not be necessary. If either is so, God will be certain to show mankind which are what be it His will.

The original King James translations included the Apocrypha. I do not know the reasoning for rmoving it from most Protestant Bibles, but it is certain whether it is included or not, it will make no difference in the Gospel as delivered by Jesus Christ in both Testaments. Nothng will change the Salvation process as taught in the Gospels of the Evangelists.

Perhaps I have contributed something here, and perhaps I have contributed nothing, but it is worthy of some meditation I think.

God bless all who are in Jesus Christ.....

The Apocrypha conflicts with the Bible in many places; And it was never regarded by true believers as inspired Scripture within the KJV. It was looked upon as like how believers today look at study commentaries alongside the Word of God. We do not regard the commentaries today as being inspired.

 

[Jason0047]

Yet you prove my point about word play, and they did use different wording then what was in the original Hebrew and Greek. You try to defend it by saying the whole different wording yet same meaning debate, but the fact still remains that if the original says one word if you replace it with another even if it has the same meaning is a mistranslation.
If the original says Holy Spirit then by using the word ghost would be a mistranslation as that was not the word that was used. Like I said it does not change the salvation issue, but it does show by the translators using words that were not in the original is a translation error.

Once again just like the Red Sea translation, as the original Hebrew wording says Sea of Reeds.


Matthew 10:28 is dealing with judgment but it clearly shows that the soul can not be destroyed by man, as man can only kill the body. And the scripture in Acts 2:27 is not speaking of after death, as the context is that by God's guidance through the Holy Spirit will lead our souls from not facing hell and lake of fire that we were once headed to before we turned ourselves to the Lord.

No. There is no difference between me saying "canine" versus "dog" (Which is the differences we see between the KJV and the original languages (Such as Hebrew and Greek). Synonyms are not words with an entirely different meaning.

Synonym - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

Now, there is a big difference in me saying, "dog" versus "cat" and changing the entire meaning of what that word says (Which is what the New King James version does many many times). Therein lies the difference.

Matthew 10:28 proves my point that the soul is separate from the body. It makes a distinction between the two. Acts 2:27 is talking about afterdeath. How could it not be?

 

[kennethcadwell]

There are many people who know much about writings that ae included and excluded from the Bible as we know it today, the various Protestant versions, RC and EOC versions; I am not one of those folks.

Perhaps my understanding of God's Word and how it became as it is today is over simplified for most minds, but this is what I believe. I believe the Word has been preserved by God no matter how many scholars may have thought to perhaps improve upon it or make it more understandable. No matter, it has come down to us today with overwhelming blessings in understanding for all peoples.

It is possible there are books missing. It is possible there are books that may not be necessary. If either is so, God will be certain to show mankind which are what be it His will.

The original King James translations included the Apocrypha. I do not know the reasoning for rmoving it from most Protestant Bibles, but it is certain whether it is included or not, it will make no difference in the Gospel as delivered by Jesus Christ in both Testaments. Nothng will change the Salvation process as taught in the Gospels of the Evangelists.

Perhaps I have contributed something here, and perhaps I have contributed nothing, but it is worthy of some meditation I think.

God bless all who are in Jesus Christ.....

Exactly the errors in mention in all English versions, and mainly that very small ones in the KJV does not change the gospel message. Yes why some were left out and others were not is a big discussion, and not to many know that Hebrews, 2 Peter, 3 John, and even the book of Revelation at one point were considered part of the Apocrypha books. They no longer are now days as they are part of our biblical cannon. People want to base all understanding of one version and call others all corrupt, but that is not true in all cases and the bible says the Holy Spirit will guide is in all truth.
If people want to stick to KJV only that is fine, but is not the perfect that is to come the bible speaks of as it has word play errors and punctuation errors as well. Putting comma's or period's where there is none in the original.......

 

[Jason0047]

In reference to Acts 2:27: Let's look at the word "hell."

Psalms 86:13 For great is thy mercy toward me: and thou hast delivered my soul from the lowest hell.​

Is this talking about the lowest grave?

Psalms 139:8 If I ascend up into heaven, thou art there: if I make my bed in hell, behold, thou art there.​

Heaven here is contrasted with Hell. How can it not be talking about Hell?