Who are the 'Gentiles'?

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Apr 19, 2009
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#21
even if gentile meant jew, you still arent jewish . And why would jesus tell the desciples to not enter "talmudic" cities ? (even though there wasnt such a thing) , even if the talmudic beleivers of the time were lost isralites, Jesu scame for the lost israelites adn not the gentiles . so if genitle meant "lost isralite: as you have claimed in your "talmudic" explanation ,then the verse would contradict itself . you arent a jew and if you were youd eb a terrible one since odds are you dont keep the Law of God (unles you do keep Torah, in which case you would be a jewish convert and thus a jew)
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#22
even if gentile meant jew, you still arent jewish . And why would jesus tell the desciples to not enter "talmudic" cities ? (even though there wasnt such a thing) , even if the talmudic beleivers of the time were lost isralites, Jesu scame for the lost israelites adn not the gentiles . so if genitle meant "lost isralite: as you have claimed in your "talmudic" explanation ,then the verse would contradict itself . you arent a jew and if you were youd eb a terrible one since odds are you dont keep the Law of God (unles you do keep Torah, in which case you would be a jewish convert and thus a jew)
Gentile does not mean Jew it's translated from the Greek word ethnos, the meaning of the word ethnos does not mean either "Jew" or "non-Jew", the modern word "Jew" comes from the word Judean refering to a subject from the territory of Judea in a geographical sense:

Strongs Exhaustive Concordance.

#2453 - Ioudaios; from #2448 (in a sense of 2445 as a country); JUDEAN, i.e. belonging to Jehudah:-Jew(ess) of Judea.

You see how a Judean cannot be of the northern kingdom of Israel, because they were divided, you have Judah and you have Israel, seperate kingdoms, the modern word "Jew" only refers to a member of the geographical area of Judea, the majority of israelites were in the northen Kingdom of Israel that's why Jesus refers to the people of Galilee as "Gentiles" they were Israelites, now we know that the 10 tribes of Israel came out of Assyrian captivity and migrated into Europe, there is so much historical evidence to this that virtually impossible to deny and giving the weight of Scripture supporting the case it is beyond doubt.

You just said that Jesus did not come for the Gentiles, that's what you said and you are very wrong and anybody who has read a Bible should know how wrong you are.

Jesus came for the Lost Sheep of Israel who are called the ethnos - "Gentiles"

Universal Dictionary of the English Language, 1897, vol II, p. 2286, says: "gen-tile, gen-til, gen-tyl, From gentil, from Lat. gentilis = one belonging to the same class, a gentile, from gens = a clan. 2. Of noble or gentle birth; of high rank; noble.

Unfortunately today people do not understand their own language, they do not have the level of education required to comprehend their own language and this is very sad.
 
Apr 19, 2009
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#23
Gentile does not mean Jew it's translated from the Greek word ethnos, the meaning of the word ethnos does not mean either "Jew" or "non-Jew", the modern word "Jew" comes from the word Judean refering to a subject from the territory of Judea in a geographical sense:

Strongs Exhaustive Concordance.

#2453 - Ioudaios; from #2448 (in a sense of 2445 as a country); JUDEAN, i.e. belonging to Jehudah:-Jew(ess) of Judea.

You see how a Judean cannot be of the northern kingdom of Israel, because they were divided, you have Judah and you have Israel, seperate kingdoms, the modern word "Jew" only refers to a member of the geographical area of Judea, the majority of israelites were in the northen Kingdom of Israel that's why Jesus refers to the people of Galilee as "Gentiles" they were Israelites, now we know that the 10 tribes of Israel came out of Assyrian captivity and migrated into Europe, there is so much historical evidence to this that virtually impossible to deny and giving the weight of Scripture supporting the case it is beyond doubt.

You just said that Jesus did not come for the Gentiles, that's what you said and you are very wrong and anybody who has read a Bible should know how wrong you are.

Jesus came for the Lost Sheep of Israel who are called the ethnos - "Gentiles"

Universal Dictionary of the English Language, 1897, vol II, p. 2286, says: "gen-tile, gen-til, gen-tyl, From gentil, from Lat. gentilis = one belonging to the same class, a gentile, from gens = a clan. 2. Of noble or gentle birth; of high rank; noble.

Unfortunately today people do not understand their own language, they do not have the level of education required to comprehend their own language and this is very sad.
i love how you ignored my point 3 times now. if you were an Israelite you would be a fail one since you dont keep the Law. the "black israelites" make a better case than you
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#24
i love how you ignored my point 3 times now. if you were an Israelite you would be a fail one since you dont keep the Law. the "black israelites" make a better case than you
As an Israelite decendant I do indeed keep God's Law, Christians are if they are true Christians under Abrahamic Covenant. Those who call themselves "jews" today are not under Abrahamic Covenant they follow as their tradition Talmudic Law. God's Laws only apply to Christians who are saved by God the Father through the Faith of Jesus Christ imputed to them, the law is not made void by this Faith but is established Romans 3:31. The new Covenant is prophecised by Jeremiah in Jeremiah 31:31-37. And confirmed and established with the death of Christ and this is given in The Book of Hebrews - Hebrews 8:8-12.

Piano_hero, I have already answered your point now 3 times, the Law and the Commandments of God are held and kept by Christians, and only Christians can be the House of Israel and the House of Judah, and this is explained in the Old Testament and confirmed in the New Testament.
 
D

dane_g87

Guest
#25
Actually, the term "Jew" originally was a reference to those of the tribe of Judah as opposed to the other tribes, and had no significance over a geographical region.

You have failed to fully explain the meaning of the term "Jew" in Greek with your Strongs reference.

- "in the sense of G2455 as a country" - what we have here is a single usage of the word in the sense of another word. What this means is that this isn't the only meaning and usage of the word Jew. However, in the sense of G2455, which is translated into English as the name Judas. Therefore, when the word "Jew" is used in the sense of Judas as a country, it becomes a reference to a geographical region, as well as the people inhabiting it. But this is not the only usage and definition of the word Jew.

The term Jew is derived from one of Jacob's sons named Judah. The people/descendants of Israel were divided into 12 separate tribes - each tribe descending from a son of Jacob. Originally, only the members of the tribe of Judah were specifically known as Jews. Over time, however, the nation of Israel was exiled into Babylonian captivity, due to their increasing sins against God, and it wasn't until after their restoration as a nation that the term Jew indiscriminately referred to anyone who descended from Jacob. Jesus was the 'King of the Jews' - of all Israel, not just the tribe of Judah.

cupofruin, you are the one here that doesn't understand the clear words of Scripture. The word Gentile means tribe or nation. It was used as a reference to the tribes and nations of the world that were not of the Covenant of the God of Israel. It was used in the following sense: We, the nation (ethnos) of Israel, acknowledge and worship the true God of Heaven, but the nations (the Gentiles) do not. With this usage, the term Gentile thus carries a negative connotation. It is a reference to all the nations foreign to Israel.

This is the definition of Gentiles (Greek ethnos) according to STRONGS:
a race (as of the same habit), that is, a tribe; specifically a foreign (non-Jewish) one (usually by implication pagan): - Gentile, heathen, nation, people.

I don't know why you failed to provide this STRONG's reference, because it specifically defines Gentile against your teaching of the word. Instead, you have used an extrabiblical dictionary to define it as it suits your purpose.

You are the one in error, cupofrain, and you teach false things and try to confuse those who seek truth.
 
D

dane_g87

Guest
#26
You are bent over the original English use of the word Gentile. However the Scriptures were not originally written in English. The New Testament was written in Greek, and the original Greek usage of the word Gentile was specifically defined as a foreign, non-Jewish tribe, nation, or race.

And so this great error of yours has become a foundation for you to build even more unbiblical and false teachings. And you won't consider the Greek definition of the word, especially in light of all the evidence against you...because doing that would crush the rest of your doctrine. No, you are too bent into your ways.
 
Apr 19, 2009
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#27
You are bent over the original English use of the word Gentile. However the Scriptures were not originally written in English. The New Testament was written in Greek, and the original Greek usage of the word Gentile was specifically defined as a foreign, non-Jewish tribe, nation, or race.

And so this great error of yours has become a foundation for you to build even more unbiblical and false teachings. And you won't consider the Greek definition of the word, especially in light of all the evidence against you...because doing that would crush the rest of your doctrine. No, you are too bent into your ways.
thank you !
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#28
You are bent over the original English use of the word Gentile. However the Scriptures were not originally written in English. The New Testament was written in Greek, and the original Greek usage of the word Gentile was specifically defined as a foreign, non-Jewish tribe, nation, or race.

And so this great error of yours has become a foundation for you to build even more unbiblical and false teachings. And you won't consider the Greek definition of the word, especially in light of all the evidence against you...because doing that would crush the rest of your doctrine. No, you are too bent into your ways.
I have given the Greek definition of the word ethnos, as well as the Latin, Hebrew and English, I have shown the linguistic evolution and etymological history of the word in all it's translations. But I will give it to again just in cased you or anybody else missed it.

The Greek- English Lexicon Liddel & Scott

This book is the ultimate known Greek - English Lexicion, ask a senior Linguist and they will tell you if you want a English translation of a Greek word then this book is the best known researched source. It contains the references to Greek Classical literature and Biblical writings. How does the Lexicon define the word ethnos?

'ethnos' - "number of people accustomed to living together, company, body of men, particular tribe; a nation, a people; caste, a tribe; a guild; a relation." (1968)

ethnos is derived from the verb "to be accustomed" and the Lexicon shows the primary, original core meaning to be "number of people accustomed to living together"

No plural meaning, the meaning is singular, that is the Greek meaning of the word in a Classical and Biblical sense.

Biblical Koine Greek defines it this way:

Thayer's Greek Lexicon of the New Testament.

'ethnos' - " a multitude associated or living together, a company, troop, or swarm, & a multitude of the same nature or genus, & race & a nation." (Thayer, p. 169)

Thats from the superior Greek Lexicon of the New Testament in Koine Biblical Greek! So it's the best possible way you can define in English the word ethnos as the Apostles meant it!

 
May 3, 2009
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#29
A word of Latin origin and usually employed in the plural. In the English versions of both Testaments it collectively designates the nations distinct from the Jewish people. The basis of this distinction is that, as descendants of Abraham, the Jews considered themselves, and were in fact, before the coming of Christ, the chosen people of God. As the non-Jewish nations did not worship the true God and generally indulged in immoral practices, the term Gôyîm "Gentiles" has often times in the Sacred Writings, in the Talmud, etc., a disparaging meaning. Since the spread of Christianity, the word Gentiles designates, in theological parlance, those who are neither Jews nor Christians. In the United States, the Mormons use it of persons not belonging to their sect. From Newadvent.com
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#30
Actually, the term "Jew" originally was a reference to those of the tribe of Judah as opposed to the other tribes, and had no significance over a geographical region.
2 Kings 16:6. - This is the very first reference to Jews in the Bible and they were in Elath which and were at war with Allies of Israel!



cupofruin, you are the one here that doesn't understand the clear words of Scripture. The word Gentile means tribe or nation. It was used as a reference to the tribes and nations of the world that were not of the Covenant of the God of Israel. It was used in the following sense: We, the nation (ethnos) of Israel, acknowledge and worship the true God of Heaven, but the nations (the Gentiles) do not. With this usage, the term Gentile thus carries a negative connotation. It is a reference to all the nations foreign to Israel.
ethnos is singular not plural - it means: "of the same race"!

This is the definition of Gentiles (Greek ethnos) according to STRONGS:
a race (as of the same habit), that is, a tribe; specifically a foreign (non-Jewish) one (usually by implication pagan): - Gentile, heathen, nation, people.
#1484 ethnos prob. from #1486; a race [singular! KJV mistranslation, NOT plural] as of the same habit [primary core meaning - refering to same habit] i.e. a tribe [singular] spec. a foreign (non-jewish[Judean]) one usually implicated [ secondary, modern latter interptretaion by implication] pagan- Gentile, heathen, nation, people [Singular sense].

#1486 etho - primary verb; to be used (by habit or conventionality); neut. perfect, part. usage;- be custom (manner, wont.)

The meaning is the same, it is in a singular sense, referring to a people of similar habit and custom 'a tribe as of the same habit' from the primary verb 'to be accustomed' NOW, consider the KJV mistranslations that I have pointed out earlier and understand the Biblical Koine Greek meaning of the words as well as the Latin and English in a more in depth linguistic application and you will see that I am correct.

 
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dane_g87

Guest
#31
Cupofruin, the tribe of Judah was distinct from the other tribes of Israel, as was the tribe of Levi, etc. In 2 Kings 16:6, there were two separate kingdoms, the kingdom of Judah, and the kingdom of Israel.

Cupofruin, the word "ethnos" can be used both in the singular sense and plural sense, just like the word "nation." If it is referring to a single nation, then the singular sense of "ethnos" is used! But if it is speaking in the plural, then likewise the plural sense of "ethnos" is used! Take a look at Revelation 10:11, and the phrase "peoples, and nations, and tongues"....guess what? The word nations, which is plural, is translated from ethnos! And then look, at Matthew 21:43, at the phrase "..taken from you and given to a nation..." The word nation, which is singular, is translated also from ethnos! Therefore your point is crushed!

Yes eric that is exactly right. Cupofruin, ironically, your little theology and beliefs are themselves a "cup of ruin" and the evidence of Scripture clearly reveals that you are wrong. The word Gentile means a group or multitude of people, whether as a society, a tribe, or a nation. The Israelites referred to themselves as the one nation that worshiped the true God of Heaven. And this is true, they were; for it was Israel that God entered covenant with, not any other people, race, or nation of the world. Exclusively the descendants of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. This was the sole nation that worshiped God. Therefore any reference to the other tribes, the other peoples, the other races, or the other nations always carried a negative connotation because these peoples, tribes, races, and nations did not serve the true God! And now you are sitting here playing with words, and twisting definitions to suit your own purpose; and trying to apply a negative term to that of God's people. No my friend, you are very wrong, and your false theology will only lead to even more deceit. You will be a cup of ruin. Abandon this garbage or you will be held accountable for all the people you lead astray.
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#32
A word of Latin origin and usually employed in the plural. In the English versions of both Testaments it collectively designates the nations distinct from the Jewish people. The basis of this distinction is that, as descendants of Abraham, the Jews considered themselves, and were in fact, before the coming of Christ, the chosen people of God. As the non-Jewish nations did not worship the true God and generally indulged in immoral practices, the term Gôyîm "Gentiles" has often times in the Sacred Writings, in the Talmud, etc., a disparaging meaning. Since the spread of Christianity, the word Gentiles designates, in theological parlance, those who are neither Jews nor Christians. In the United States, the Mormons use it of persons not belonging to their sect. From Newadvent.com

The Latin root of Gentiles is gens (genit. gentis) = a clan. from Gentilis = one belonging to the same class, a gentile. As substantive; Ordinary Language; 1. One of the same clan or family. 2. A A person of noble or gentle birth; one of high rank."

Do you know your Latin roots? You should learn.

Abraham is never called "jewish" in the Bible!

Greek # 2453. Ioudaios, from 2448 (In a sense of 2455 AS A COUNTRY); Judean, i.e. belonging to Jehudah;-Jew(ess), OF JUDEA.

Greek # 2448. Ioda, of Heb. or [3063 or parh. 3194; Judah (i.e Jehudah or Juttah), A PART OF (or place in) Pal.:-Judean.

Greek # 2445. Ioudas. of Heb. or [3063]; Judas (i.e. Jehudah), the name of ten Isr. also the posterity of one of them and it's region:-Juda (h,-s); Jude.


OK Now understand that the name of Judah, Jehudah, Juttah or Judas, is used to describe a region, a counrty that is also the name of Jehudah, a part of or place in, or anyone of posterity one Juhudite and it's region - Judea.

Do you know that Isarel was divided into two kingdoms, look at the map of the kingdom years, you will see the kingdom of Judah and the kingdom of Israel, subjects and members of the kingdom of Israel are not Judeans, that is absurd! look where the city of Elath is, because that is where the Jews came from - Elath; 2 Kings 16:6.

The Bible first mentions theJews or Judeans as being in Elath and at war with Allies of Israel!

If your having difficulties understanding this you need to pray and ask God for guidence in your further studies.
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#33
Cupofruin, the tribe of Judah was distinct from the other tribes of Israel, as was the tribe of Levi, etc. In 2 Kings 16:6, there were two separate kingdoms, the kingdom of Judah, and the kingdom of Israel.
I have already pointed that out to.

Cupofruin, the word "ethnos" can be used both in the singular sense and plural sense, just like the word "nation." If it is referring to a single nation, then the singular sense of "ethnos" is used! But if it is speaking in the plural, then likewise the plural sense of "ethnos" is used! Take a look at Revelation 10:11, and the phrase "peoples, and nations, and tongues"....guess what? The word nations, which is plural, is translated from ethnos! And then look, at Matthew 21:43, at the phrase "..taken from you and given to a nation..." The word nation, which is singular, is translated also from ethnos! Therefore your point is crushed!

I am sorry but you are unable to grasp the correct meaning of the Biblical Greek in which the Apostles did write instead you read a modern English mistranslation and take that for the original meaning, what you have is a basic misinterptretaion on your part because of the error in some Bible translations. It is not entirely your fault that you cannot comprehend the Greek language if you could things would be alot clearer to you.

Yes eric that is exactly right. Cupofruin, ironically, your little theology and beliefs are themselves a "cup of ruin" and the evidence of Scripture clearly reveals that you are wrong. The word Gentile means a group or multitude of people, whether as a society, a tribe, or a nation. The Israelites referred to themselves as the one nation that worshiped the true God of Heaven. And this is true, they were; for it was Israel that God entered covenant with, not any other people, race, or nation of the world. Exclusively the descendants of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. This was the sole nation that worshiped God. Therefore any reference to the other tribes, the other peoples, the other races, or the other nations always carried a negative connotation because these peoples, tribes, races, and nations did not serve the true God! And now you are sitting here playing with words, and twisting definitions to suit your own purpose; and trying to apply a negative term to that of God's people. No my friend, you are very wrong, and your false theology will only lead to even more deceit. You will be a cup of ruin. Abandon this garbage or you will be held accountable for all the people you lead astray.
This is mere misguided opinion on your part, the meaning of the English word 'Gentile' in its authoritive and proper sense correctly translated from Biblical Greek means "of similar habit and custom, of a same tribe or clan, a relation, also one of high noble birth belonging to a particular class or clan"
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#34
The reason why this word is so important and why Satan and his minions have tried so hard to obscure it's true meaning is because a correct understanding of this word would radically change your Christianity and better equip you in hearing the message of Jesus. Satan's most successful attemps are when he disguises a small percentage of very meaningful and critical words in Holy Scripture "a little leaven ruins the whole". Satan is a master of all languages who has tainted most Bibles especially most modern Bibles and those based on the KJV. Very simply without knowledge today's Christians have accepted the lie that Jesus was a 'Jew' who called 'non-jews' (Greeks, Romans, etc) "gentiles" taken falsely to mean NOT His people, when it is in fact the opposite and a detailed study of Scripture and languages reveals this.

Look at the Bible and go to Mat. 4:12;16 - and put away your misconceptions and put down the leavened modern implications that have corrupted the words of Jesus. Listen to what Jesus says the first time the word "Gentiles" is used in the New Testament, the very first time;

Matthew. 4:12-16 "Now when Jesus had heard that John was cast in prison, He departed into Galilee; And leaving Nazareth, He came and dwelt in Capernaum, which is upon the sea coast, in the borders of Zabulon and Nephthalim: That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying,
'The land of Zabulon, and the land of Nephthalim, by the way of the sea, beyond Jordan, Galilee of the Gentiles;
The people which sat in darkness saw great light; [Jesus - light unto the Gentiles] and to them which sat in the region and shadow of death [the Gentiles of Galilee threatened and surrounded by enemies]light [Jesus]sprung up"
From that time Jesus began to preach and to say, "Repent [change your mind] for the kingdom of heaven is at hand."
And Jesus walking in by the sea of Galilee, saw two brethren, Simon called Peter, and his brother Andrew, casting a net into the sea: for they were fishers."


Well, here we have Jesus first preacing the gospel to the "GENTILES OF GALILEE"!!!!!

Gentiles means ethnos - 'of a same tribe', that's His people in Galilee, that's were the Isarelites were, that's were Jesus went to preach, the Apostles were there, they were his ethnos, His brethren! Gentiles - the first time the word is used in the Bible is used to describe Israelites!!!

Satan is very clever and he will decieve many but Christ will prevail, and God has allowed those that love and seek Him time to discover the truth, the Spirit of Truth will testify to this if he is with you, God will test you and you will be tried, do not underestimate the power of Satan, study the Word of God, look at what it says, tear away all the lies that surround it, this is not easy, it will be hard, and you will come under great condemnation by the powers of this world who seek to disguise the truth, remember to make God be true and every man a liar - Listen to the words long written down for in them is truth.

In His holy service, peace be unto you in the name of Christ and the Father....
 
May 3, 2009
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#35
The Latin root of Gentiles is gens (genit. gentis) = a clan. from Gentilis = one belonging to the same class, a gentile. As substantive; Ordinary Language; 1. One of the same clan or family. 2. A A person of noble or gentle birth; one of high rank."

Do you know your Latin roots? You should learn.

Abraham is never called "jewish" in the Bible!

Greek # 2453. Ioudaios, from 2448 (In a sense of 2455 AS A COUNTRY); Judean, i.e. belonging to Jehudah;-Jew(ess), OF JUDEA.

Greek # 2448. Ioda, of Heb. or [3063 or parh. 3194; Judah (i.e Jehudah or Juttah), A PART OF (or place in) Pal.:-Judean.

Greek # 2445. Ioudas. of Heb. or [3063]; Judas (i.e. Jehudah), the name of ten Isr. also the posterity of one of them and it's region:-Juda (h,-s); Jude.


OK Now understand that the name of Judah, Jehudah, Juttah or Judas, is used to describe a region, a counrty that is also the name of Jehudah, a part of or place in, or anyone of posterity one Juhudite and it's region - Judea.

Do you know that Isarel was divided into two kingdoms, look at the map of the kingdom years, you will see the kingdom of Judah and the kingdom of Israel, subjects and members of the kingdom of Israel are not Judeans, that is absurd! look where the city of Elath is, because that is where the Jews came from - Elath; 2 Kings 16:6.

The Bible first mentions theJews or Judeans as being in Elath and at war with Allies of Israel!

If your having difficulties understanding this you need to pray and ask God for guidence in your further studies.
________________________________________________________________________

Ahem. For all your bombast, you have failed to lodge a single, supported criticism of the definition I posted from Advent.com, which is the Catholic Encyclopedia. That Encyclopedia enjoys a longstanding reputation for being the most accurate scholarly compilation of western theology around. Not a single, legitimate criticism! Yet, look at all the words you employed!

If you have difficulties interacting with others, I suggest you pray and ask God for guidance.

God Bless
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#36
________________________________________________________________________

Ahem. For all your bombast, you have failed to lodge a single, supported criticism of the definition I posted from Advent.com, which is the Catholic Encyclopedia. That Encyclopedia enjoys a longstanding reputation for being the most accurate scholarly compilation of western theology around. Not a single, legitimate criticism! Yet, look at all the words you employed!

If you have difficulties interacting with others, I suggest you pray and ask God for guidance.

God Bless
Every post I have given on this thread and all of the referenced details I have given to support my statements are in fact of a much higher standard both in depth and scope from Biblical, Classical, Historical and Linguistic sources which far exceed 'Advent.com'.
Everything I have said is critique of the sunday school definition from 'Advent.com'. Your definition has been legitimately criticized on all points, if you are not intellectually capable of understanding that, then find someone who can explain to you what I have written, then maybe you will understand how I have criticized the poorly resolved definition that you found on 'Advent.com'. I most certainly do reject your definition as would any Theologian, Bible Scholar or Linguist that is worth their salt.
 
D

dane_g87

Guest
#37
cupofruin, so much insight in extrabiblical resources, English dictionaries, and the like, has caused you to drift far from the truth of the Scriptures. People like you are one of the many problems in the church these days, who start denominations, new doctrines, etc through their many words and wordplays. None of us need to look at any of these resources outside the Bible to see the correct usage of the terms used in the Bible. Be reading various passages of the Israelites in comparison to the rest of the people of the world, even an elementary school child can correctly discern what a Gentile is, based only on biblical context.
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#38
cupofruin, so much insight in extrabiblical resources, English dictionaries, and the like, has caused you to drift far from the truth of the Scriptures. People like you are one of the many problems in the church these days, who start denominations, new doctrines, etc through their many words and wordplays. None of us need to look at any of these resources outside the Bible to see the correct usage of the terms used in the Bible. Be reading various passages of the Israelites in comparison to the rest of the people of the world, even an elementary school child can correctly discern what a Gentile is, based only on biblical context.
Greetings Dane,

Would you be so kind to provide Scripture yourself as I have done for you. You can see how many Biblical quotes and references I have given, it is the Bible that establishes the word ethnos to mean 'of the same clan or tribe'
In Biblical context gentiles from the Latin root 'gens' from the Greek 'ethnos' means - of a like kind and manner by custom, it does not mean 'non-jews', that modern corrupted meaning is what is 'extra-biblical'.

The Bible for example tells us the Gentiles are from Galilee, "Galilee of the ethnos (Gentiles)"

You may want to consider why in your corrupted Bible there is only one plural word used for what in Latin, Greek and Hebrew there is in fact several words with differing singular and plural meanings, you may want to consider that, but then again maybe you are not willing to sacrifice your time to understand God's word in it's true meaning.

 
G

gigitgirl

Guest
#39
Eph. 2:11 says "Therefore, remember that formerly you who are Gentiles by birth and called "uncircumcised" by those who call themselves "the circumcision" (that done in the body by the hands of men)-- remember that at that time you were separated from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise, without hope and without God in the world. But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far away have been brought near through the blood of Christ."

I don't know if that helps any. I was just reading the Bible and I seen this.
God Bless everyone!
 
C

Cup-of-Ruin

Guest
#40
Eph. 2:11 says "Therefore, remember that formerly you who are Gentiles by birth and called "uncircumcised" by those who call themselves "the circumcision" (that done in the body by the hands of men)-- remember that at that time you were separated from Christ, excluded from citizenship in Israel and foreigners to the covenants of the promise, without hope and without God in the world. But now in Christ Jesus you who once were far away have been brought near through the blood of Christ."

I don't know if that helps any. I was just reading the Bible and I seen this.
God Bless everyone!
Greetings,

The translation is fine, no mistakes. The Greek word ethnos is correctly translated into the English Gentiles. The problem is that many people and especially American christians do not understand what the word "Gentiles" means, this is due to deliberate corruption by establishment institutions both secular and religious. We can see that many Bible Dictionaries and modern Encyclopedias and the like define "Gentiles" as; "Gentile: All nations of the world other than the Jews." - Davis Bible Dictionary. This is a general modern meaning that has become widespread especially among christians, jews and the broad uneducated classes who have poor comprehension of Langauges. However this definition is completely wrong, in fact it is so wrong that it is laughable. The assumption that the English word 'Gentiles' means 'non-jews' is a joke, it really is!

Who was excluded from the citizenship of Israel? Do you remember reading about the kingdom of Israel as oppossed to the kingdom of Judah, two different kingdoms, OK, sometimes united like under David and Solomon, but seperate. Who became foreigners to the covenants? Who was far off but has now been brought near because of Christ? Well what happened to the kingdom of Isarel? And keeping in mind the distinction that God has made between Judah and Israel, Judah is the tribes of Judah and Benjamin and Isarel is the other 10 tribes and they were divided into two kingdoms, so the Israelites could have been a citizen of the kingdom of Judah or the kingdom of Israel. Now Judah and Benjamin returned after Babylonian Captivity, OK, the Apostles were all bar Judas from the tribe of Benjamin and Jesus was from the tribe of Judah, that's because the only tribes remaing of the Israelites in the Kingdom were from Judah and Benjamin, the other 10 tribes, the vast majority of Israelites never came back to their kingdom of Israel - they never returned from Assyrian captivity! Now what were the tribe of Judah and Benjamin doing in Israel's kingdom and not their own kingdom of Judah? They had been pushed out by other ethnic groups, mainly Edomites who had taken control of the kingdom of Judah, Herod was an Edomite, he was not an Israelite, Edomites were in control of the Temple and the government of the land of Judea - they were called Judeans - this word "Judeans" is translated in modern English - "Jews"!

Go back to Matt 4:15. - "That it might be fulfilled which was spoken by Esaias the prophet, saying, 'The land of Zabulon and land of Nephthalim, by way of the sea, beyond Jordon, Galilee of the Gentiles;"

'Galilee of the ethnos' (Gentiles).... Galilee is the land of Zebulon and Naphthali, tribes of Israel, not the land of foreigners but the land of Israel! Galilee of the Gentiles! So where are the other Gentiles if they are not in Israel? Well they never came back from Assyria, the 10 tribes never returned, these people are called the ethnos the Gentiles.

So Now, lets get a proper meaning of the word 'Gentiles' and we can find this in a superior classic dictionary- Skeat's Etymological Dictionary of the English Langauge. the word is derived from Old French and Latin, Walter Skeat says: GENTILE. see Genteel. GENTEEL. (F.-L.) XVI cent.; F . gentil. C L. gentilis, belonging to the same clan, a gentile (afterwards applied to mean well-bred, &c) . C. L. genti-, decl. stem of gens, a clan, tribe. Allied to genus.

That's about as linguistically accurate as one can get for the meaning of the word. The use of the word is for those who belong to the same clan or tribe! That is what it's meaning is. If you were never taught your Latin Root words at school you may want to learn some as it will help you to understand the English language. The Latin root GENS means: 'decended from a common stem'

The Universal Dictionary of the English Language, 1897, vol II, p.2286, says: "gen-tile, gen-til, gen-tyl, a. & s [Fr. gentil, from Lat. gentilis = one belonging to the same class, a gentile, from gens (genit. gentis) = a clan; Sp. & Port. gentil: Ital. gentile. Gentile is thus a doublet of genteel and gentle (q.v.).] A. As Adjective: I. Ordinary Language: 1. Of or pertaining to any nation; national. 2. Of noble or gentle birth; of high rank; noble. II. Technically: 1. Gram.: Denoting the clan race or country. B. As Substantive: I. Ordinary Language: 1. One of the same clan or family. 2. A person of noble birth or gentile birth; one of high rank."

The Greek word 'ethnos' means exactly the same as the Latin word 'Gens' from where we get 'Gentile' which means exactly the same; those of a specific clan or tribe who are decended from a common stem and are of a high and noble birth! That's what the word Gentiles means, and any definition that defines it as 'non-jew' is just laughable, it's ridiculous, the word Gentiles is much older then the word 'jew' - that word is less then 200 years old and means Judean. The Gentiles are Israelites, the 10 Tribes who were taken into Assyrian Captivity and when they were released, which is written in stone and history books, they went into the wildiness just as God had planned, they crossed the Caucasus Moutains and pushed into Europe - and this is all known and recorded, they won't teach you this is in High School or Church but this is the truth, they the 10 tribes of Israel became a 'great multitude' in Europe. Jesus Christ said that He "Come only for the lost sheep of Israel", well that what He did, the lost sheep of Israel who became Christians, they are the 'Gentiles', the one who were cut off to find grace in the wilderness. God does not forget His people, He is in Covenant with them Hebrews 8:8-12, Jeremiah 31:31-36, God is now in Covenant with the House of Judah and the House of Israel (now found the 10 lost tribes) and they are all Christians, saved by God the father who is their salvation fulfilling all the Old Testament prophets.
 
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