The law of Christ

[crossnote]

Israel's words to the covenant in Exodus chapter 24 were vain and their actions didn't back up their words of agreement.

Exodus 24:7-8
7 And he took the book of the covenant, and read in the audience of the people: and they said, All that the LORD hath said will we do, and be obedient.
8 And Moses took the blood, and sprinkled it on the people, and said, Behold the blood of the covenant, which the LORD hath made with you concerning all these words.

Numbers 14:21-22
21 But as truly as I live, all the earth shall be filled with the glory of the LORD.
22 Because all those men which have seen my glory, and my miracles, which I did in Egypt and in the wilderness, and have tempted me now these ten times, and have not hearkened to my voice;

Do we react to the law of Christ the same as Israel reacted to the law of Moses because we want to make the God of the Old Testament a different God than the God of the New Testament? I think so.

We don't want to see that the God of the Old Testament is the same God of the New Testament, because the first one was mean and a dictator but the second is compassionate, understanding, and graceful, not really holding mankind accountable for their actions like the God that gave Moses the law. We desire the God who gave the law to Moses to change according to what we desire Him to be. The day that we wake up and realize that it was God's grace that gave the law to Moses we will see the truth. If transgression would never have been revealed we would have no reason to seek salvation, forever being separated from God with no hope. If the law would never have been given we would not know how to live productive blessed lives within the confines of creation, for the law giver and the creator are the same and He desires to bless and not curse. I thank God that the law was given, and Spiritually it is still effectual.

Different God or different Covenant?

 

[crossnote]

Those prior to Acts 2 did not have access to the Holy Spirit and therefore could not obey from the heart. They had no choice at the time.

Is that why David was a man after God's own heart?

 

[just-me]

It was their relationship with God and it included pleasing God through outward acts - their works were their righteousness.

And it shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the LORD our God, as he hath commanded us. Deut. 6:25

Is that the same way we, the body of Christ, receive righteousness?

faith is the victory
Hebrews 11:24-30
24 By faith Moses, when he was come to years, refused to be called the son of Pharaoh's daughter;
25 Choosing rather to suffer affliction with the people of God, than to enjoy the pleasures of sin for a season;
26 Esteeming the reproach of Christ greater riches than the treasures in Egypt: for he had respect unto the recompence of the reward.
27 By faith he forsook Egypt, not fearing the wrath of the king: for he endured , as seeing him who is invisible.
28 Through faith he kept the passover, and the sprinkling of blood, lest he that destroyed the firstborn should touch them.
29 By faith they passed through the Red sea as by dry land: which the Egyptians assaying to do were drowned .
30 By faith the walls of Jericho fell down, after they were compassed about seven days.

God told Moses and Joshua how to get it done. Not by works but by faith.

Habakkuk 2:4 "Look at the proud: he is inwardly not upright; but the righteous will attain life through trusting faithfulness.

Is not this a clear representation of salvation?

 

[KohenMatt]

It was their relationship with God and it included pleasing God through outward acts - their works were their righteousness.

And it shall be our righteousness, if we observe to do all these commandments before the LORD our God, as he hath commanded us. Deut. 6:25

Is that the same way we, the body of Christ, receive righteousness?

I agree with this, and I would say yes to your question.

 

[just-me]

Different God or different Covenant?

Thread name The law of Christ. It is different than His Father's?

 

[1still_waters]

Is the law given to Moses spiritually different than the law of Christ?

Give a distinct yes or a no when answering this question.

Hopfully this will eleviate confusion that causes circular rhetoric that has no end.

Let's take a look at words used to describe those under OT law, and those used to describe those under the law of Christ.

The law given on Sinai has words like bondwoman, slaves, flesh.

Gal 4
21 Tell me, you who want to be under law, do you not listen to the law? 22 For it is written that Abraham had two sons, one by the bondwoman and one by the free woman. 23 But the son by the bondwoman [r]was born according to the flesh, and the son by the free woman through the promise. 24 [s]This is allegorically speaking, for these women are two covenants: one proceeding from Mount Sinai bearing children [t]who are to be slaves; [u]she is Hagar. 25 Now this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia and corresponds to the present Jerusalem, for she is in slavery with her children.

Which words are used of those under the law of Christ?
Free, promise, born of Spirit.

28 And you brethren, like Isaac, are children of promise. 29 But as at that time he who was born according to the flesh persecuted him who was born according to the Spirit, so it is now also. 30 But what does the Scripture say?
“Cast out the bondwoman and her son,
For the son of the bondwoman shall not be an heir with the son of the free woman.”

31 So then, brethren, we are not children of a bondwoman, [w]but of the free woman.

The contrast seems clear to me.

 

[just-me]

Let's take a look at words used to describe those under OT law, and those used to describe those under the law of Christ.

The law given on Sinai has words like bondwoman, slaves, flesh.



Which words are used of those under the law of Christ?
Free, promise, born of Spirit.


The contrast seems clear to me.

So does Jesus contrast His will different than His Father's will in that God desired Israel to be in bondage and Christ desires the world to be free? Is the intention of God's law of the Old Testament slavery different than the intentions of Christ's law in the New Testament of freedom?

 

[crossnote]

Thread name The law of Christ. It is different than His Father's?

Then why did you bring up the 'different God's topic'? Mine was in response to that.

 

[john832]

Is that why David was a man after God's own heart?

There were exceptions, but God was not working with all of mankind prior to Acts 2. The lesson of the garden...

Gen 3:23 Therefore the LORD God sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken.
Gen 3:24 So he drove out the man; and he placed at the east of the garden of Eden Cherubims, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to keep the way of the tree of life.

 

[john832]

Let's take a look at words used to describe those under OT law, and those used to describe those under the law of Christ.

The law given on Sinai has words like bondwoman, slaves, flesh.



Which words are used of those under the law of Christ?
Free, promise, born of Spirit.


The contrast seems clear to me.

All except for the fact it was the One who became Jesus Christ that gave the Law on Mt. Sinai and then said this...

Deu 8:1 All the commandments which I command thee this day shall ye observe to do, that ye may live, and multiply, and go in and possess the land which the LORD sware unto your fathers.
Deu 8:2 And thou shalt remember all the way which the LORD thy God led thee these forty years in the wilderness, to humble thee, and to prove thee, to know what was in thine heart, whether thou wouldest keep his commandments, or no.
Deu 8:3 And he humbled thee, and suffered thee to hunger, and fed thee with manna, which thou knewest not, neither did thy fathers know; that he might make thee know that man doth not live by bread only, but by every word that proceedeth out of the mouth of the LORD doth man live.

 

[john832]

Is that why David was a man after God's own heart?

Was salvation offered to all prior to the Sacrifice of Christ?

 

[1still_waters]

So does Jesus contrast His will different than His Father's will in that God desired Israel to be in bondage and Christ desires the world to be free? Is the intention of God's law of the Old Testament slavery different than the intentions of Christ's law in the New Testament of freedom?

Progressive revelation for 2000 Alex.

The law was given as a tutor to point toward Christ.
It's not that he gave it and wanted them "under bondage" it's that it was a step in the progress of revealing the mystery that was hidden.

Galatians 3:23-25New American Standard Bible (NASB)

23 But before faith came, we were kept in custody under the law, being shut up to the faith which was later to be revealed.24 Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith. 25 But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a [a]tutor.

We no longer need a tutor.
The mystery hidden has been revealed.

 

[crossnote]

There were exceptions, but God was not working with all of mankind prior to Acts 2. The lesson of the garden...

Gen 3:23 Therefore the LORD God sent him forth from the garden of Eden, to till the ground from whence he was taken.
Gen 3:24 So he drove out the man; and he placed at the east of the garden of Eden Cherubims, and a flaming sword which turned every way, to keep the way of the tree of life.

Neither was God working with ALL mankind when He gave the Mosaic Law TO ISRAEL.

David was a man after God's heart due to his tender love and faith towards God, obviously not for his 'law keeping'.

 

[1still_waters]

Don't you see the progress of thought in Gal 3-5?
The law was holding us captive, a tutor to point us toward Christ.
But now that Christ is revealed we're set free from that tutor, so we can walk in the Spirit.

5 [a]It was for freedom that Christ set us free; therefore keep standing firm and do not be subject again to a yoke of slavery.

What's that yoke of slavery?

21 Tell me, you who want to be under law, do you not listen to the law? 22 For it is written that Abraham had two sons, one by the bondwoman and one by the free woman. 23 But the son by the bondwoman [r]was born according to the flesh, and the son by the free woman through the promise. 24 [s]This is allegorically speaking, for these women are two covenants: one proceeding from Mount Sinai bearing children [t]who are to be slaves; [u]she is Hagar. 25 Now this Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia and corresponds to the present Jerusalem, for she is in slavery with her children. 26 But the Jerusalem above is free; [v]she is our mother. 27 For it is written,

The law is the slavery.
Not in the sense it's bad, in the sense of God's progressive revelation it kept us contained as a tutor pointing to Christ.

 

[crossnote]

Was salvation offered to all prior to the Sacrifice of Christ?

Yes, by faith not law.

 

[just-me]

Then why did you bring up the 'different God's topic'? Mine was in response to that.

Sorry. The covenant is with Israel in the Old Testament and with God's children through Christ in the New Testament. The law of Christ is New and the law of God is Old. When excluding the human reactions to either one, is the spiritual intent of the words spoken contained in both covenants the same as what came from both God and Christ?

Is the law of God different than the law of Christ?

 

[1still_waters]

Picture a yard with children.
The children are surrounded by a fence, with signs around saying, "Daddy is on the way!"
The fence is great, it keeps the children contained, prevents them from running into the street.
Of course the children can climb over the fence.

Then picture daddy showing up, and he says, "I'm here, come run into my arms."
The fence gate opens, they all run into his arms.

The law of Christ has us in Daddy's arms.
We cry Abba Father.

The OT law had us contained, safe, yoked, pointing to Daddy.

But now that we have Daddy, and are in his arms, we don't need that yoke, that tutor, because Daddy holds us.
We're thankful for the fence and signs Daddy built, but we cling to Daddy, not the fence.

 

[just-me]

Don't you see the progress of thought in Gal 3-5?
The law was holding us captive, a tutor to point us toward Christ.
But now that Christ is revealed we're set free from that tutor, so we can walk in the Spirit.



What's that yoke of slavery?



The law is the slavery.
Not in the sense it's bad, in the sense of God's progressive revelation it kept us contained as a tutor pointing to Christ.

So are you presenting an allegory that God desired Israel to be enslaved to His law by works only? What I'm focusing on is what God's intentions were in giving the law to Israel.

Galatians 4:22-26
22 It says that Abraham had two sons, one by the slave woman and one by the free woman.
23 The one by the slave woman was born according to the limited capabilities of human beings, but the one by the free woman was born through the miracle-working power of God fulfilling his promise.
24 Now, to make a midrash on these things: the two women are two covenants. One is from Mount Sinai and bears children for slavery - this is Hagar.
25 Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia; she corresponds to the present Jerusalem, for she serves as a slave along with her children.
26 But the Jerusalem above is free, and she is our mother;

 

[1still_waters]

So are you presenting an allegory that God desired Israel to be enslaved to His law by works only? What I'm focusing on is what God's intentions were in giving the law to Israel.

Galatians 4:22-25
22 It says that Abraham had two sons, one by the slave woman and one by the free woman.
23 The one by the slave woman was born according to the limited capabilities of human beings, but the one by the free woman was born through the miracle-working power of God fulfilling his promise.
24 Now, to make a midrash on these things: the two women are two covenants. One is from Mount Sinai and bears children for slavery - this is Hagar.
25 Hagar is Mount Sinai in Arabia; she corresponds to the present Jerusalem, for she serves as a slave along with her children.

You're not distinguishing the purpose of the law.
You're not taking into consideration progressive revelation.

You think that since the law held people captive, God wanted them captive.

The purpose of the law was to be a tutor the point to Christ.

Galatians 3:23-25New American Standard Bible (NASB)

23 But before faith came, we were kept in custody under the law, being shut up to the faith which was later to be revealed.24 Therefore the Law has become our tutor to lead us to Christ, so that we may be justified by faith. 25 But now that faith has come, we are no longer under a [a]tutor.

It was a step in the progress of revelation.

 

[just-me]

You're not distinguishing the purpose of the law.
You're not taking into consideration progressive revelation.

You think that since the law held people captive, God wanted them captive.

The purpose of the law was to be a tutor the point to Christ.

Galatians 3:23-25New American Standard Bible (NASB)




It was a step in the progress of revelation.

I have no problem getting that, but what you may not get is that the law still has purpose and it saddens me that Christians cannot see that. When faith comes, the law doesn't vanish, it's is seen with a spiritual eye of understanding for the law is spiritual. Right? King David had faith in God and He loved it. Shouldn't we love it too instead of insinuating that Christ changed it?