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Prodigal, the best thing for you to do is to look at the various versions themselves, compare them, think about what you think are the meaningful differences, and then come discuss with us your reasoning. You will get nowhere quickly just asking for people's opinions without doing the first-hand investigating and thinking yourself.
PostHuman, you got it right. It was Hebrews 13:17 that Yet was referring too. I don't know if it is my sticky IPad keyboard, or my fingers which no longer seem to work properly that was the problem. But somehow I missed the 1 in 17.
Sorry to you, Yet, for messing up your post!
However, I still have absolutely no clue what translation you are talking about that used "persuade." I'm just not finding it, not even in the Message.
Sorry to you, Yet, for messing up your post!
However, I still have absolutely no clue what translation you are talking about that used "persuade." I'm just not finding it, not even in the Message.
This is an easy question to answer and you don't need history to prove it. Read whatever bible you want and while your reading it, look for easily verifiable contradictions. You will find them in all versions except the KJV.
For example, the NIV (and others) contradicts itself in regards to the sons of God. In one place it says Israel is God's firstborn son then in another place it says Jesus is God's one and only son. Jesus can't be Gods one and only son if Israel was God's firstborn son, this is an undisputable contradiction and you will not find these contradictions in the KJV.
Exodus 4:22 New International Version (NIV)
22 Then say to Pharaoh, ‘This is what the Lord says: Israel is my firstborn son,
John 3:16 New International Version (NIV)
16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
For example, the NIV (and others) contradicts itself in regards to the sons of God. In one place it says Israel is God's firstborn son then in another place it says Jesus is God's one and only son. Jesus can't be Gods one and only son if Israel was God's firstborn son, this is an undisputable contradiction and you will not find these contradictions in the KJV.
Exodus 4:22 New International Version (NIV)
22 Then say to Pharaoh, ‘This is what the Lord says: Israel is my firstborn son,
John 3:16 New International Version (NIV)
16 For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life.
T
In the context of the conversation, Moses says to Pharaoh that God recognises Israel is his firstborn. Firstborn, as in specifically chosen from among the nations to be His people. Israel were born from the line of Shem, Noah's middle-child. The other nations would come to know the one true God through His people, Israel.
T
Here it is in simple English, so even you can understand: The KJV contains the complete Word of God. The modern translations contain the complete Word of God. But the KJV added many verses in the translation process. Still, none of these added verses are non-biblical. As in, none of these verses contain ideas that are not of God. But these verses that were added to the KJV cannot be found in the existing copies we have of the Bible in Hebrew, Aramaic and Greek. Therefore, these missing verses are not missing, but have been added later by the KJV translators.
So you're saying that firstborn doesn't actually mean being born first, it really means to be specifically chosen by God.
Certainly you would agree that this doesn't apply to the firstborn in the verse below. What is the context of the conversation with Pharaoh that changed the meaning of firstborn in Exodus 4:22?
Gen_19:31 And the firstborn said unto the younger, Our father is old, and there is not a man in the earth to come in unto us after the manner of all the earth:
Certainly you would agree that this doesn't apply to the firstborn in the verse below. What is the context of the conversation with Pharaoh that changed the meaning of firstborn in Exodus 4:22?
Gen_19:31 And the firstborn said unto the younger, Our father is old, and there is not a man in the earth to come in unto us after the manner of all the earth:
T
Context is key. In the Exodus verse, God (through Moses) is referring to His people, Israel (a nation). In the Genesis verse, Lot's firstborn (eldest daughter) hatches a plan with her younger sister. Clearly, firstborn here refers to an individual person. It's really a case of comparing apples and oranges. One verse refers to the firstborn in terms of God's holy nation; the other verse refers to the firstborn in terms of an individual. This is why context is so important.
Exactly, God is referring to Israel as a nation but the nevertheless God calls Israel his firstborn son. So what we have according to the KJV bible is two types of sons of God. One son born of a normal birth through the flesh and under the law and another son born miraculously out of God himself.
In the NIV, Israel is God's firstborn son and Jesus is God's one and only son. This is a contradiction and conceals the idea of God having two sons, one of the flesh and one of God.
Israel is called God's firstborn son because Israel represents our flesh and salvation through the law but Jesus, being God's second born son represents our second birth.
In the NIV, Israel is God's firstborn son and Jesus is God's one and only son. This is a contradiction and conceals the idea of God having two sons, one of the flesh and one of God.
Israel is called God's firstborn son because Israel represents our flesh and salvation through the law but Jesus, being God's second born son represents our second birth.