I have posted Chapter 14 completely and have highlighted those verses that clearly say if there is no one to interpret the unknown tongue, one shouldn't (within the BODY of THE CHURCH) speak...
That is disorder and confusion within the BODY since the one speaking, if he can't interpret is speaking things that do not edify the BODY.
And the whole purpose was that these diversified gifts were for the building up and edification of THE ONE BODY made of many parts.
Not all are prophets
Not all speak in tongues
But tongues is a different gift altogether
It is a sign amongst believers.
It is not a gift that is for the edification of THE BODY because if one can't interpret what is being said, how is anyone being edified?
In that case, Paul is very clear...the conversation is private and personal edification...it is between that person and GOD and he should not speak in tongues if there isn't another person who can interpret what is being said.
vs 28 clearly states that
But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
Actually, verse 28 has Paul saying it differently; but one needs to look at verse 2 to see what he meant in verse 28.
1 Corinthians 14:1Follow after charity, and desire spiritual gifts, but rather that ye may prophesy.
[SUP] 2 [/SUP]For he that speaketh in an unknown tongue speaketh not unto men, but unto God: for no man understandeth him; howbeit in the spirit he speaketh mysteries.[SUP]3 [/SUP]But he that prophesieth speaketh unto men to edification, and exhortation, and comfort.
Paul was explaining why believers zealous for spiritual gift, should seek the gift of prophesy and began comparing the gift of tongue by itself against the gift of prophesy to show that tongues is not a stand alone gift, because by itself, no one else understands him, not even the tongue speaker, but God understand what is being said, not that the tongue speaker is speaking to God.
John 16:13 testifies that the Holy Spirit cannot speak for Himself and so He cannot use God's gift of tongues which is for speaking unto the people, to turn it around and speak back to God. You can use any Bible version as that truth is maintained in all Bibles. You can see five versions of it, starting with the KJV at this link below.
https://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=John 16:13&version=KJV;NIV;NASB;ESV;TLB
Anyway, knowing that truth is how believers can spot the errant version of Romans 8:26-27 in all modern Bibles except the KJV in keeping scripture lined up with that truth in John 16:13 because even though the Holy Spirit has intercessions for us, He cannot utter them for His intercessions are unspeakable, thus He cannot use God's gift of tongues and turn it around to be used as His personal means to pray to God by. It is the Son, that knows the mind of the Spirit that also searches our hearts ( Hebrews 4:12-16 ) is how the unspeakable intercessions of the Spirit's are made known to God the Father.
So once He helps us to see this truth in Romans 8:26-27 as obscured by modern Bibles, we can see that 1 Corinthians 14:2 is not tongues being used to speak to God, but to point out that man does not understand this tongue, but God does.
So we go to verse 28;
1 Corinthians 14:[SUP]27 [/SUP]If any man speak in an unknown tongue, let it be by two, or at the most by three, and that by course; and let one interpret.[SUP]28 [/SUP]But if there be no interpreter, let him keep silence in the church; and let him speak to himself, and to God.
Now if you can imagine the process of verse 27 in being done, a foreigner could stand up and begin speaking in his own native tongue out of turn thus not manifested by the Holy Spirit. This was to mean that if no interpretation comes, this man is speaking out of turn and why he is told to be silent as Paul explained he speaks unto himself and to God, meaning that person is a foreigner speaking out of turn, as he understands what he is saying as God does too, not that the man was talking to himself and to God; nor the Holy Spirit talking to him and to God. See?
Otherwise, the service would not be done in decency and order for who could hear what was going on if a man sitting next to them continues to speak to himself and to God? So Paul was not saying that if there was no interpretation, he is made to be silent and yet "still" be allowed to speak to himself & to God but quietly, he was pointing out that once again, God's gift of tongues is of other men's lips to speak unto the people as it must comes with interpretation or it is not being manifested by the Holy Spirit in the assembly, as you & I both know, the Holy Spirit does not do these gifts in half measure.
The other thing to note is that women are not allowed to speak in the assembly as this is a commandment from the Lord. They are allowed to minister in outreach. but not in church.
1 Corinthians 14:[SUP]34 [/SUP]Let your women keep silence in the churches: for it is not permitted unto them to speak; but
they are commanded to be under obedience as also saith the law.[SUP]35 [/SUP]And if they will learn any thing, let them ask their husbands at home: for it is a shame for women to speak in the church.[SUP] 36 [/SUP]What? came the word of God out from you? or came it unto you only?[SUP] 37 [/SUP]If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.
1 Timothy 2:[SUP]11 [/SUP]Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection.[SUP] 12 [/SUP]But I suffer not a woman to teach, nor to usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence.[SUP] 13 [/SUP]For Adam was first formed, then Eve.[SUP] 14 [/SUP]And Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived was in the transgression.
Why is this commandment necessary?
1 Corinthians 11:1Be ye followers of me, even as I also am of Christ.[SUP] 2 [/SUP]Now I praise you, brethren, that ye remember me in all things, and
keep the ordinances, as I delivered them to you.[SUP]3 [/SUP]But I would have you know, that the head of every man is Christ; and the head of the woman is the man; and the head of Christ is God.
So the word of God would come to the men directly in the assembly; and not to the women directly.
As a commandment from the Lord, the Holy Spirit Whom is God, would not manifest tongues in women to lead them to speak. That is also another line of discernment to know that tongue is not of Him at all as well as to know how women get that tongue by what they believe was the Holy Spirit coming over them later in life apart from salvation was not the Holy Spirit at all, making them speak in the assembly like that.
Outside the assembly, God has used women as missionaries socially and abroad. The Book of Acts confirms this.
Anyway, that was what verse 28 in 1 Corinthians 14th chapter was about in recognizing when someone stands up out of order and yet no interpretation came after he spoke, it was because it was not manifested by the Holy Spirit but a foreigner speaking out of turn when seeing three stand up to speak in tongues and another interpret.
Paul ended saying not to forbid speaking in tongues and so how can he say that in verse 28 if that was the Holy Spirit manifesting that tongue? Answer, because it did not come with interpretation, and thus not manifested by the Holy Spirit, and that was the decency and order he was trying to establish for all churches to follow in using the gift of tongue.
