Pope Amends Bible, Art. LORD's prayer

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Adstar

Senior Member
Jul 24, 2016
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#41
Ahhh the Eurythmics.. they where a bit excentric in a weird English way but they where pretty good at what they did.. :) lol

[video=youtube;RCdneDxFRYQ]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RCdneDxFRYQ[/video]
 
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Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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#42
More edifying IMO to discuss the rationale and the text in question than to make this just one more pope-bashing thread to add to CC's enormous mound of those...
Well there should definitely be pope-bashing about this issue. Almost all English translation say "and lead us not" or "bring us not" into temptation, because that is exactly what the Greek says.

καὶ μὴ εἰσενέγκῃς ἡμᾶς εἰς πειρασμόν, ἀλλὰ ῥῦσαι ἡμᾶς ἀπὸ τοῦ πονηροῦ. ὅτι σοῦ ἐστιν ἡ βασιλεία καὶ ἡ δύναμις καὶ ἡ δόξα εἰς τοὺς αἰῶνας. ἀμήν.


Strong's Concordance
eispheró: lit. or fig. to carry inward
Original Word: εἰσφέρω
Part of Speech: Verb
Transliteration: eispheró
Phonetic Spelling: (ice-fer'-o)
Short Definition: I lead into, bring in
Definition: I lead into, bring in, announce.

The Lord must have had a very good reason to word it in that manner, since He was actually TEACHING His disciples (and us) and to what to pray for.

 

Kavik

Senior Member
Mar 25, 2017
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#43
The Lord must have had a very good reason to word it in that manner, since He was actually TEACHING His disciples (and us) and to what to pray for.

Yes, but he didn’t teach them in Greek – see the (Galilean) Aramaic version of the phrase in post #37.
 

Nehemiah6

Senior Member
Jul 18, 2017
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#44
Don’t look at the Greek version either – the original was said in Aramaic; the Greek version is just an attempt at translating the Aramaic.
Whatever may have been said in Aramaic, there is absolutely no evidence that the Gospel of Matthew was translated from Aramaic to Greek. And since all conservative Christians accept the Greek NT as the Word of God, then those were the exact words given to Matthew. Once people start playing fast and loose with the text of Scripture, there is no end to corrupting the Bible.

"Further, not a trace can be discovered in this Gospel itself of its being a translation. Michaelis tried to detect, and fancied that he had succeeded in detecting, one or two such. Other Germans since, and Davidson and Cureton among ourselves, have made the same attempt. But the entire failure of all such attempts is now generally admitted, and candid advocates of a Hebrew original are quite ready to own that none such are to be found, and that but for external testimony no one would have imagined that the Greek was not the original. This they regard as showing how perfectly the translation has been executed; but those who know best what translating from one language into another is will be the readiest to own that this is tantamount to giving up the question. This Gospel proclaims its own originality in a number of striking points; such as its manner of quoting from the Old Testament, and its phraseology in some peculiar cases. But the close verbal coincidences of our Greek Matthew with the next two Gospels must not be quite passed over. There are but two possible ways of explaining this. Either the translator, sacrificing verbal fidelity in his version, intentionally conformed certain parts of his author's work to the second and third Gospels—in which case it can hardly be called Matthew's Gospel at all—or our Greek Matthew is itself the original."

A commentary, critical and explanatory, on the Old and New Testaments, Matthew, Jamieson, Fausset, Brown.

At the same time, it is the duty of preachers to explain what is meant in that verse, which means comparing Scripture with Scripture.
 

Zmouth

Senior Member
Nov 21, 2012
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#45
Genesis 12: KJV
11 "And it came to pass, when he was come near to enter into Egypt, that he said unto Sarai his wife, Behold now, I know that thou art a fair woman to look upon: {12} Therefore it shall come to pass, when the Egyptians shall see thee, that they shall say, This is his wife: and they will kill me, but they will save thee alive. {13} Say, I pray thee, thou art my sister: that it may be well with me for thy sake; and my soul shall live because of thee."

So Sarah was not Abraham's sister he only identified her as his sister out of fear of the Egyptians..
Problem with that is it is written that Abram told Pharaoh that Sarai was his sister, and later Abraham, the prophet, told King Abimelech that Sarah that was his sister. Not to mention that you are basically saying that you concur with “al-Taqiyya”? In the account with King Abimelech, the scriptures record:

And Abraham said of Sarah his wife, She is my sister: and Abimelech king of Gerar sent, and took Sarah. Genesis 20:2

However, in the scriptures it is written;

But Abimelech had not come near her: and he said, Lord, wilt thou slay also a righteous nation? Said he not unto me, She is my sister? and she, even she herself said, He is my brother: in the integrity of my heart and innocency of my hands have I done this.
Genesis 20:4-5

Does sound like the King didn't have the fear of God when he was told Abraham's sister was the prophet's wife. So the next day Abimelech speaks with the prophet Abraham:

10 And Abimelech said unto Abraham, What sawest thou, that thou hast done this thing?
11 And Abraham said, Because I thought, Surely the fear of God is not in this place; and they will slay me for my wife's sake.
Genesis 20

So if one is claiming that the prophet Abraham only said Sarah was his sister out of fear, then the following verse would reprove that.


And yet indeed she is my sister; she is the daughter of my father, but not the daughter of my mother; and she became my wife. Genesis 20:12
 

Kavik

Senior Member
Mar 25, 2017
794
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#46
Whatever may have been said in Aramaic, there is absolutely no evidence that the Gospel of Matthew was translated from Aramaic to Greek.

Perhaps not, I'm not talking about the entire gospel. The original language of the 'Pater Noster' was Aramaic, not Greek. The Aramaic original at some point was put into Greek.

 

Adstar

Senior Member
Jul 24, 2016
7,455
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#47
Problem with that is it is written that Abram told Pharaoh that Sarai was his sister, and later Abraham, the prophet, told King Abimelech that Sarah that was his sister. Not to mention that you are basically saying that you concur with“al-Taqiyya”? In the account with King Abimelech, the scriptures record:


Al-Taqiyya is an islamic practice of lying to unbelievers about the teachings of islam... Abraham never lied to Pharaoh about anything God revealed to Abraham about the will of God in regard to religion.. Abraham's lie was a personal lie to Pharaoh.. Not a lie about God or his will.. Also the Scriptures reveal that it was a lie .. So in no way does it show any Al-Tagiyya from Abraham or from me..

And Abraham said of Sarah his wife, She is my sister: and Abimelech king of Gerar sent, and took Sarah. Genesis 20:2

However, in the scriptures it is written;

But Abimelech had not come near her: and he said, Lord, wilt thou slay also a righteous nation? Said he not unto me, She is my sister? and she, even she herself said, He is my brother: in the integrity of my heart and innocency of my hands have I done this.
Genesis 20:4-5

Does sound like the King didn't have the fear of God when he was told Abraham's sister was the prophet's wife. So the next day Abimelech speaks with the prophet Abraham:

10 And Abimelech said unto Abraham, What sawest thou, that thou hast done this thing?
11 And Abraham said, Because I thought, Surely the fear of God is not in this place; and they will slay me for my wife's sake.
Genesis 20

So if one is claiming that the prophet Abraham only said Sarah was his sister out of fear, then the following verse would reprove that.


And yet indeed she is my sister; she is the daughter of my father, but not the daughter of my mother; and she became my wife. Genesis 20:12
Giving another example of Abraham lying about His wife does not change my explanation. Again The Bible here reveals that it was Abraham lie. Abraham was just a faulty man who sinned and had flaws like any other man.. Indeed most of the Bible prophets where very faulty men who's sins are often revealed in the scriptures.. It is Gods way of stopping people from making prophets into personality cult figures.. So that the focus of the readers attention should be directed to the teachings of God and God himself rather then the exaltation of men..
 

Zmouth

Senior Member
Nov 21, 2012
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#48
Al-Taqiyya is an islamic practice of lying to unbelievers about the teachings of islam... Abraham never lied to Pharaoh about anything God revealed to Abraham about the will of God in regard to religion.. Abraham's lie was a personal lie to Pharaoh.. Not a lie about God or his will..
I have read that Taqiyya allows for one to lie to save their own life, I think that the practice of lying to unbelievers is more a interpretation of the Apostle Paul's teaching than Islam.

'For if the truth of God has more abounded through my lie unto his glory; why yet am I also judged as a sinner?" Romans 3:7
Also the Scriptures reveal that it was a lie .. So in no way does it show any Al-Tagiyya from Abraham or from me..
I have not written unto you because you know not the truth, but because you know it, and that no lie is of the truth. Do you believe this?

Giving another example of Abraham lying about His wife does not change my explanation. Again The Bible here reveals that it was Abraham lie.
I never said Abraham lied, I merely posed a question.

And yet indeed she is my sister; she is the daughter of my father, but not the daughter of my mother; and she became my wife. And it came to pass, when God caused me to wander from my father's house, that I said unto her, This is thy kindness which thou shalt shew unto me; at every place whither we shall come, say of me, He is my brother.
Gen 20:12-13

Sarai was Harans' wife, until his death.

28 And Haran died before his father Terah in the land of his nativity, in Ur of the Chaldees.
29 And Abram and Nahor took them wives: the name of Abram's wife was Sarai; and the name of Nahor's wife, Milcah, the daughter of Haran, the father of Milcah, and the father of Iscah.
Genesis 11

And Terah took Abram his son, and Lot the son of Haran his son's son, and Sarai his daughter in law, his son Abram's wife; and they went forth with them from Ur of the Chaldees, to go into the land of Canaan; and they came unto Haran, and dwelt there. Gen 11:31

 
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Zmouth

Senior Member
Nov 21, 2012
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#49
Ahhh the Eurythmics.. they where a bit excentric in a weird English way but they where pretty good at what they did.. :) lol

[video=youtube;RCdneDxFRYQ]https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=RCdneDxFRYQ[/video]
I kinda liked their cover of the Beatles' Fool on the Hill
 

Enoch987

Senior Member
Jul 13, 2017
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#50
I think Sarai was Haran's daughter. Abram was the third son of Terah. He was born when Terah was 130. Haran was born when Terah was 70. Nahor was named for his grandpa Nahor who may have died the year before he was born.
The least of the son of Terah was chosen to believe God's promise.
The same for Jesus? He was chosen (Luke 9:35). anointed from his companions (Hebrews 1:8-9)
The Hebrew insists on a plural when 3 or more. If 2, then singular.
If the Holy Spirit is the mind of God and not a person 1 John 2:1 (the Advocate is Jesus after resurrection). Why didn't He breathe on the disciples when he was in human form to give them the Holy Spirit? He wasn't allowed to or he wasn't able to.John20:22 The Elohim are Jesus' companions who weren't chosen plus Jesus, the first born Son and God the Father.
 

Zmouth

Senior Member
Nov 21, 2012
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#51
I think Sarai was Haran's daughter.
Wouldn't a man leaving his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife mean Abram would have left his father like Nabor since he didn't go with Terah. Taking your brother's wife from tradition wouldn't be the same thought.

Abram was the third son of Terah. He was born when Terah was 130. Haran was born when Terah was 70.
That would mean Abram didn't leave until Terah died when he was 205. Any other supporting scripture or just the one?
 

Enoch987

Senior Member
Jul 13, 2017
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#52
Wouldn't a man leaving his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife mean Abram would have left his father like Nabor since he didn't go with Terah. Taking your brother's wife from tradition wouldn't be the same thought.

I think Abram stayed with Terah until Terah died. The following verses in Genesis 12 read that Abram received God's promise at age 75 after buring Terah and moving to Canaan. There is alot (pun intended) that happened to Abram when he was 75. The ages are significant. Grandpa Nahor dies 119 years after Terah is born. Possibly Nahor jr. is born to Terah the next year which was 120 years after Terah was born (Terah is 120 years old.) which may be another application of the 120 year prophecy given to Noah before his sons were born (the other is when Japheth is 120, Shem's 3rd son who carries on the Messiah's lineage is Arpaxad who is 17 when Japheth is 120. Shem is 117. Jesus resurrected on the 17th day of the religious year. (My Spirit will not always strive with man, His days will be 120 years.) Terah dies in the city of Haran named for Haran. If Jesus was 35 years plus 5/7th of a year old when he died (360 day years) then He would have been born on the 117th day of the religious year almost 36 years before he died. (12857 and 1/7th days of life on earth)
When Abram married Sarai, he didn't leave his father. Did Abram not obey the Bible? Did it cause family problems? There was some dysfunction here.


That would mean Abram didn't leave until Terah died when he was 205. Any other supporting scripture or just the one?
extending the reply
 

preston39

Senior Member
Dec 18, 2017
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#53
The pope is contemptuous; ...Rev 22;...no one..... is to change, modify or attempt to amend scriptures.
 

Zmouth

Senior Member
Nov 21, 2012
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#54
extending the reply
Gen 12:1
Now the LORD had said unto Abram, Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and from thy father's house, unto a land that I will shew thee:




Matt 22:24
Saying, Master, Moses said, If a man die, having no children, his brother shall marry his wife, and raise up seed unto his brother.
Gen 11:30
But Sarai was barren; she had no child.


Gen 11:31
And Terah took Abram his son, and Lot the son of Haran his son's son, and Sarai his daughter in law, his son Abram's wife;

Gen 20:12
And yet indeed she is my sister; she is the daughter of my father, but not the daughter of my mother; and she became my wife.
 

CS1

Well-known member
May 23, 2012
12,387
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#55
I am not a fan of this Pope . He is liberal and involved with issues that the Word of God has said and very clear on the subject which many this pope is wrong or not in line with the context of the Word of God.

which is no surprise when they present him as the authority or head for the WHOLE Church and not Christ. making changes to something as the Prayer Jesus gave to the disciples seems arrogant. for over 1400 years no one caught this? So the problem is not the word but those who are not picking it up and searching the contextual meaning without relying on a Pope.
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
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#56
Pope Francis isn't pleased with the words to the Lord's Prayer — specifically, the part about temptation.

In an interview with an Italian TV network, the pontiff said that the current language of the Our Father prayer "is not a good translation."

"[T]he first Sunday of Advent," the church wrote, "a new translation of the Our Father will come into force in all forms of liturgy. The Catholic faithful will no longer say: 'Do not submit to temptation' but 'Do not let us enter into temptation.' " Source

Personally, when I heard the part about 'Lead me not into temptation', since I wouldn't follow any other God than the one true God and neither do I follow Jesus which I hope doesn't offend any of you who do. But if it does I was told to give you a message. See John 21:22-23
Greetings Zmouth!

I have to say that what you wrote above is very confusing and alarming. In your post above you said "neither do I follow Jesus." And then you provided a scripture where Jesus is telling Peter to follow him? Here is the scripture that you said you were told to give us:

"Jesus answered, “If I want him to remain alive until I return, what is that to you? You must follow me.” Because of this, the rumor spread among the believers that this disciple would not die. But Jesus did not say that he would not die; he only said, “If I want him to remain alive until I return, what is that to you?”

So, when Peter said to the Lord regarding John "what about him?" the Lord said, "what is that to you? You must follow me." Therefore, the Lord is telling Peter to follow him. How does that support your claim of not following Jesus? If anything it supports the opposite of what you are believing.

Also, by saying that you only follow the "one true God," are you then saying that Jesus is not God? And what about all the other verses where Jesus says "follow me."

It is not a matter of offending us that you don't follow Jesus, but brings into question your salvation. Is Jesus not "Emmanuel" meaning "God with us?" Is he not God in the flesh? For as scripture states: "In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the Word was God."

Didn't Thomas, after seeing the Lord's nail prints say to Jesus, "my Lord and my God"?

Even God the Father call the Son "God."

"But about the Son he (the Father) says,
“Your throne, O God, will last for ever and ever;
a scepter of justice will be the scepter of your kingdom.

?
 
Aug 8, 2017
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#58
As for the scriptures in question::

Matthew 6: KJV
13 "And lead us not into temptation, but deliver us from evil: For thine is the kingdom, and the power, and the glory, for ever. Amen."


God has sent delusion upon people and will send delusions upon people..

2 Thessalonians 2: KJV
{8} And then shall that Wicked be revealed, whom the Lord shall consume with the spirit of his mouth, and shall destroy with the brightness of his coming: {9} Even him, whose coming is after the working of Satan with all power and signs and lying wonders, {10} And with all deceivableness of unrighteousness in them that perish; because they received not the love of the truth, that they might be saved. {11} And for this cause God shall send them strong delusion, that they should believe a lie: {12} That they all might be damned who believed not the truth, but had pleasure in unrighteousness."


So we see God ensuring that those who reject His truth are going to believe the lying signs and wonders of satan by sending them strong delusion so that they will believe the lying signs and wonders.. God sometimes has justified reason to lead people into temptation..
Catholics say "and lead us not into temptation"
 

Zmouth

Senior Member
Nov 21, 2012
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#59
Greetings Zmouth!

I have to say that what you wrote above is very confusing and alarming.
LOL, Since God is not the author of confusion then I guess John 8:47 wouldn't apply then would it?

In your post above you said "neither do I follow Jesus." And then you provided a scripture where Jesus is telling Peter to follow him? Here is the scripture that you said you were told to give us:
Jesus saith unto him, If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee? follow thou me. John 21:22


"Jesus answered, “If I want him to remain alive until I return, what is that to you? You must follow me.”
So what version are you using which translates tarry as 'remain alive'?

So, when Peter said to the Lord regarding John "what about him?" the Lord said, "what is that to you? You must follow me." Therefore, the Lord is telling Peter to follow him. How does that support your claim of not following Jesus? If anything it supports the opposite of what you are believing.
So Jesus told John not to follow him also, at least I am not the only one then.


Also, by saying that you only follow the "one true God," are you then saying that Jesus is not God? And what about all the other verses where Jesus says "follow me."
Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him. John 14:23

Didn't Thomas, after seeing the Lord's nail prints say to Jesus, "my Lord and my God"?
What is written that the other disciples had said when they were shown his hands and feet?
 

Enoch987

Senior Member
Jul 13, 2017
317
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#60
LOL, Since God is not the author of confusion then I guess John 8:47 wouldn't apply then would it?



Jesus saith unto him, If I will that he tarry till I come, what is that to thee? follow thou me. John 21:22




So what version are you using which translates tarry as 'remain alive'?



So Jesus told John not to follow him also, at least I am not the only one then.




Jesus answered and said unto him, If a man love me, he will keep my words: and my Father will love him, and we will come unto him, and make our abode with him. John 14:23



What is written that the other disciples had said when they were shown his hands and feet?
2 things orthodoxy misses. First is most important. Before Thomas declared My Lord and My God, Jesus appeared to Mary Magdelene at the tomb a week earlier. Jesus said, "I go to my Father and your Father. My God and your God." If we accept scripture then Jesus has a God. Jesus' God is the Most High God who is the one and only true God.
Point 1 and half. The firstborn son is chosen not created. Study the Genesis patriarchs including Shem and Abram.
Point 2 of lesser importance but interesting. Jesus breathed on the disciples and told them to receive the Holy Spirit. John21:22. Jesus could not give the Holy Spirit until after His resurrection. The Holy Spirit does proceed from the Father to the Son then to believers. This part of the original Creed is correct (the Spirit proceeds from the Father). In agreement with the equality clause of the Creeds (The Father, Son and Spirit are God), the Creed was changed to the Spirit proceeds from the Father and the Son by the western Catholic Church while the Eastern Orthodox kept the original Creed.
In John 2:1, we find the Advocate or advocate (NIV deleted this word likely in support of the Creed) that Jesus said would be sent in "My Name" is Jesus who was given the mind of God after His resurrection.
When Jesus told the disciples that He was greater than them and that He was sending them into the world after washing their feet (John 13) we believe Him. When Jesus says that the Father is greater than I and the Father sent Me, we don't believe Jesus because that doesn't fit the Creeds.