1Cor 2:8 - "Lord of glory"

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williamjordan

Senior Member
Feb 18, 2015
495
122
43
#1
Interested to here how you all understand the epithet, "Lord of glory." Did Paul borrow the expression from the apocryphal Book of Enoch, where the expression is used of the divine (22:14; 25:3; 27:3-4; 63:2; 75:3)?



 
M

Mitspa

Guest
#2
Interested to here how you all understand the epithet, "Lord of glory." Did Paul borrow the expression from the apocryphal Book of Enoch, where the expression is used of the divine (22:14; 25:3; 27:3-4; 63:2; 75:3)?



Interesting...I believe you can see the influence of the book of Enoch in many of Pauls letters and the other letters of the NT as well...even a direct quote in the book of Jude.
 
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Eternallife

Guest
#3
Interested to here how you all understand the epithet, "Lord of glory." Did Paul borrow the expression from the apocryphal Book of Enoch, where the expression is used of the divine (22:14; 25:3; 27:3-4; 63:2; 75:3)?



even if he did make sure not to go beyond what is written as the Apostle John wrote.
 

p_rehbein

Senior Member
Sep 4, 2013
30,231
6,560
113
#4
FOOD FOR THOUGHT

from: 1 Corinthians 2:8 Commentary - John Gill's Exposition of the Bible


for had they known it, they would not have crucified the Lord of
glory.

They would have received him, believed in him, and not put him to death: a very great character is here given of Christ, "the Lord of glory", or the glorious Jehovah; reference seems to be had to ( Psalms 24:7 ) where he is called, "the King of glory", and is an argument of his true and proper deity: he is so called because possessed of all glorious perfections, and is the brightness of his Father's glory; the same honour and glory are due to him as to the Father; and the same ascriptions of glory are made to him by angels and men. This is an instance of what the ancients call a communication of idioms or properties, whereby that which belongs to one nature in Christ, is predicated of his person, as denominated from the other: thus here the crucifixion of him, which properly belongs to his human nature, and that to his body only, is spoken of his person, and that as denominated from his divine nature, "the Lord of glory"; and he being so, this rendered his crucifixion, sufferings, and death, in human nature, efficacious to answer all the purposes for which they were endured.
 
Mar 28, 2016
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#5
even if he did make sure not to go beyond what is written as the Apostle John wrote.

I would agree the things of men offend the things of God. Its where the father of lies gets his foot hold in the door.

The Lord of Glory is the glory of the Lord. Glory speaks of the end result . The glory of a rose bush is the flower . The glory of the Lord is His finished work that works in us just as it does with all saints. If the Lord of glory has begun the good work of salvation he will finish it according to His glory.

1Pe 1:11 Searching what, or what manner of time the Spirit of Christ which was in them did signify, when it testified beforehand the sufferings of Christ, and the glory that should follow.
 
Sep 4, 2012
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#6
Or possibly from the LXX. That same expression (κύριον της δόξης ) is used in Numbers 24:11.
 
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Mitspa

Guest
#9
even if he did make sure not to go beyond what is written as the Apostle John wrote.
"The book of Enoch" was written and appears was considered holy script ?