roger
I covered this previously in this post. But to answer your question now, your perception of the "shall turn", it is focused solely upon result, but not its cause. You incorrectly assume cause and result as being one in the same when they are not.
Right man can and will turn to the Lord because they are being turned by God, scripture:
Jer 31:18-19
I have surely heard Ephraim bemoaning himself thus; Thou hast chastised me, and I was chastised, as a bullock unaccustomed to the yoke
: turn thou me, and I shall be turned; for thou art the Lord my God.
Surel
y after that I was turned, I repented; and after that I was instructed, I smote upon my thigh: I was ashamed, yea, even confounded, because I did bear the reproach of my youth.
Now the word turned in 2 Cor 3:16
Nevertheless
when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.
Its used in the active voice but subjunctive, its conditioned, the turning by the individual is conditioned on the Lord turning him, in which the turned one is passive, he has been caused to turn.
Peter used the same exact word here 1 Pet 2:25
For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now
returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.
However here its in the passive voice, the cause is the Lords stripes, His death which healed him Vs 24
Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed
Its the spiritual healing effected by the Cross, Christ bearing our sins, that one is turned unto the Shepherd of their soul. So Christs Death should get the credit when one turns to the Lord in 2 Cor 3:16
Nevertheless
when it shall turn to the Lord, the vail shall be taken away.
So turning to the Lord is an evidence that the vail has been taken away by the Lord, by the Spirit