I did not miss the point at all.
This thread is in the context of the systematic theology of John Calvin's "Institutes of the Christian Religion."
We already have one poster quote Eph 2:5, Joh 5:21 and Jer 13:23 in the context of Calvin's theology which is a context of man's INABILITY being offset by the IRRESISTIBLE GRACE of God.
Those who adhere to the theology of John Calvin believe that ONLY those who are granted IRRESISTIBLE GRACE are saved and that those who are not granted it remain damned and doomed.
The Bible simply does not teach IRRESISTIBLE GRACE. It is a very dangerous doctrine because it convinces people to WAIT on God instead of responding now. When the dynamic of faith is redefined to simply be "trust" apart from us having to do anything we are left with a do nothing Gospel because it is up to God to do everything. This is why Calvinist's harp on their doctrines and ignore the plain and simple teachings of Jesus.
John Calvin used Augustine as the bedrock of his doctrine, not the teachings of Jesus Christ. While I have not sat down and counted, from my own readings of the Institutes it does appear that John Calvin quotes Augustine far more than he does Jesus or anyone else for that matter.
It was Augustine who brought the doctrine of inability into Christian orthodoxy and John Calvin simply developed a more intricate theological system. I understand how it appeals to intellectuals and when an individual invests a lot of time in something they become emotionally attached.
I would love to see a Calvinist on these forums address this passage of scripture...
1Jn 3:7 Little children, let no man deceive you: he that doeth righteousness is righteous, even as he is righteous.
1Jn 3:8 He that committeth sin is of the devil; for the devil sinneth from the beginning. For this purpose the Son of God was manifested, that he might destroy the works of the devil.
1Jn 3:9 Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him: and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
1Jn 3:10 In this the children of God are manifest, and the children of the devil: whosoever doeth not righteousness is not of God, neither he that loveth not his brother.
Please explain why you teach the "corruption of nature" remains in someone who is born again and thus uphold "sin you will and sin you must" which is the complete opposite of what the above passage of scripture teaches. John clearly states matter of factly that those born of God MANIFEST RIGHTEOUSNESS thus clearly connecting the inward state of the heart with the outer manifestation of action.
I would also love to see a Calvinist address this...
Heb 10:19 Having therefore, brethren, boldness to enter into the holiest by the blood of Jesus,
Heb 10:20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
Heb 10:21 And having an high priest over the house of God;
Heb 10:22 Let us draw near with a true heart in full assurance of faith,
having our hearts sprinkled from an evil conscience, and our bodies washed with pure water.
Heb 10:23 Let us hold fast the profession of our faith without wavering; (for he is faithful that promised
Heb 10:24 And let us consider one another to provoke unto love and to good works:
Heb 10:25 Not forsaking the assembling of ourselves together, as the manner of some is; but exhorting one another: and so much the more, as ye see the day approaching.
Heb 10:26 For
if we sin wilfully after that we have received the knowledge of the truth, there remaineth no more sacrifice for sins,
Heb 10:27 But a certain fearful looking for of judgment and fiery indignation, which shall devour the adversaries.
Heb 10:28 He that despised Moses' law died without mercy under two or three witnesses:
Heb 10:29 Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy,
who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?
That passage clearly teaches that "continuing in sin" AFTER being "sanctified by the blood" is treating the blood with contempt for it is the blood of Christ which purges the conscience of sin (Heb 9:14, 10:22) and thus to continue in sin would make it filthy again.
I have heard people explain that passage away by saying it was not written to Christian's or that it is a reference to those who merely "hear" and then reject the Gospel. Yet neither of those explanations suffice because the passage clearly states the context is of someone who has been sanctified by the blood (Heb 10:22, 26, 29) so it is a clear reference to those who have been reconciled to God.
How does a Calvinist get around that passage? I would really like to know. Be SPECIFIC in your answer.
It's seems to me that a Calvinist would have to believe that there is this ongoing purging for ongoing rebellion in which case Heb 20:26 would make no sense because ongoing willful sin is a given.