Excuse me sword you said the following in your very first sentence. "Indeed, the Jews were never scorned about identifying their God as a single person, which was the Father." Here is my question? Please tell me why at Genesis 1:1 where it says, "In the beginning "GOD" it refers to God as a Plural being? Secondly, and in line with my first question why do you "assume" that everytime you see the word "God" it has to refer to the Father?
IN GOD THE SON,
bluto
Hey bluto, good to hear from you again. First off, just let me say that I am not as proficient in Hebrew as I am in Greek (which I in no way have mastered either). While I have been studying more Greek than Hebrew, I still have a long way to go. Not sure how well you understand Hebrew, but it is something that I am trying to continue to grow in. Here is what I have read regarding the word Elohim according to Jewish sources who speak the native tongue.
The word Elohim possesses a plural intensive syntax and is singular in meaning. In Hebrew, the suffix ים (im), mainly indicates a masculine plural. However with Elohim the construction is grammatically singular, (i.e. it governs a singular verb or adjective) when referring to the God of Israel, but grammatically plural elohim (i.e. taking a plural verb or adjective) when used of pagan divinities (Psalms 96:5; 97:7).
This is self-evident from the fact that the verb “created” בָּרָה (bara) in Genesis 1:1 is in the singular. This linguistic pattern is well known and widely used throughout the Jewish Scriptures. For example, I am certain that many readers are familiar with the Hebrew word חַיִים (chayim), meaning “life.” Notice that this word contains the identical plural suffix “im,” as in Elohim, yet it repeatedly means “life”, in the singular, throughout the Bible. Examples are:
And Rebekah said to Isaac, “I am weary of my life because of the daughters of Heth; if Jacob takes a wife of the daughters of Heth, like these who are the daughters of the land, what good will my life חַיִים (chayim) be to me?”…Genesis 27:46
You have granted me life חַיִים (chayim) and favor, and Your care has preserved my spirit…Job 10:12
The fact that the name of God, Elohim, does not in any way imply a plurality in the godhead is well known and widely recognized even among Trinitarian Christians. For example, in the New International Version Study Bible (NIV), which is a Christian commentary that cannot be construed as friendly to the Jewish faith, the Christian author writes in his commentary on Genesis 1:1:
God created. The Hebrew noun Elohim is plural but the verb is singular, a normal usage in the OT when reference is to the one true God. This use of the plural expresses intensification rather than number and has been called the plural of majesty, or of potentiality. (New International Version Study Bible, Grand Rapids: Zondervan, 1985, p. 6.)
Anyways bluto, I have no reason to doubt the many Jewish sources which understand this Elohim to be singular in meaning. Not to mention the fact that NOWHERE do we ever see the Jews speaking about God being a Triune being. If Elohim had a plural God meaning that you want to believe it has, then why did the Jews never view it like that throughout their many generations of single person God believers? Did the Jews not understand their own language?
Moreover, just read the book of Judges. You see when the Jews turned to another God or false Gods, God then left them unprotected with their enemies. Then they would eventually repent and come back to the Lord, who would forgive them and again and deliver them from their enemies. Obviously this single person God that the Jews worshipped was correct according to God Himself…was it not?
So if God was ok with Himself being identified as a single person back then, acknowledging that the Jews were correct in who God was, did He now change His mind and want to now be viewed as three persons in one? When did God explain to us that He wanted us to now view Him as three persons in one? Don’t you think that if God was not a single person He might want to explain this to His people instead of having them worship Him in error?
Yet we don’t see this correction of who God was in the OT. Nor do we see it in the NT, as I previously showed in Mark 12:28-34, when Jesus agrees with the Jewish scribe. Your second question implies an ideology that I do not hold. I don’t believe that every time the word God is used, that it means the God of the Most High. As you and I are both aware, the word god and lord can and has been used throughout scripture, even if it’s not in reference to “the” God.
For even if there are so-called gods, whether in heaven or on earth (as there are many gods and many lords), yet for us there is one God, the Father, of whom are all things, and we for Him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, through whom are all things, and through whom we live…1 Corinthians 8:5-6.
A FEW OLD TESTAMENT IDENTIFICATIONS OF GOD…
Is this how you repay the Lord, you foolish and senseless people? Isn’t He your Father and Creator? Didn’t He make you and sustain you?...Deuteronomy 32:6
Don’t all of us have one Father? Didn’t one God create us? Why then do we act treacherously against one another, profaning the covenant of our fathers?...Malachi 2:10
Yet Lord, You are our Father; we are the clay, and You are our potter; we all are the work of Your hands…Isaiah 64:8
A FEW NEW TESTAMENT IDENTIFICATIONS OF GOD…
Paul, Silvanus, and Timothy, To the church of the Thessalonians in God the Father and the Lord Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. We give thanks to God always for you all, making mention of you in our prayers, remembering without ceasing your work of faith, labor of love, and patience of hope in our Lord Jesus Christ in the sight of our God and Father…1 Thessalonians 1:1-3
Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. Praise the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who has blessed us in Christ with every spiritual blessing in the heavens…Ephesians 1:2-3
Grace to you and peace from God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ. Praise the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, the Father of mercies and the God of all comfort…2 Corinthians 1:2-3
My personal opinion of God being the Father and Jesus being His Divine Son (our Lord), through whom we receive salvation, is based upon scriptures like the few I just posted (which I can provide dozens of). If I can provide so many scriptures that CLEARLY identify God as the Father, then can you provide at least one single verse that says that God is a combination of the Father, Son, and Spirit combined?
I’m not talking about something like baptizing in certain names or vague correlations that one must “infer”. I mean, just give me a single verse that someone refers to God and says Father, Son, and Spirit…like they do with the Father alone. Otherwise I have no choice but to believe what I read in scripture, not what I must “infer” because it is written in doctrine.
To Timothy, my true son in the faith. Grace, mercy, and peace from God the Father and Christ Jesus our Lord. As I urged you when I went to Macedonia, remain in Ephesus so that you may instruct certain people not to teach different doctrine…1 Timothy 1:2-3