At the time Jesus spoke His Olivet Discourse, it was true that "only God knows" (but of that day and hour NO MAN KNOWS [PERFECT indicative]" not even Jesus, at that time).
But some sixty years after His resurrection/ascension, He had a writer write this:
"
The revelation of Jesus Christ,
WHICH GOD GAVE UNTO HIM [unto Jesus] TO SHEW UNTO His bond-servants [see 7:3] what things it behooves to take place
in quickness [this phrase necessarily refers to the "future" aspects of the Book, like in 1:19c]. And He signified
it through having sent His angel to His servant, John..."
and that "further information"
on THAT Subject, was disclosed therein (in that Book of Revelation). In it, there are numerous time-stamps, day-amounts, and other "connections" (to other Scripture references) that enable one to lay it out on a framework, so to speak.
Matthew 24:36/Mark 13:32 are not worded like "no one CAN EVER know" or "no one WILL EVER know" or even "it is FORBIDDEN to know" or "IMPOSSIBLE to know"... It is using the "PERFECT indicative," so to translate it in such a way would be to CHANGE its meaning. It is not saying those.
"PERFECT tense" means it has been true and is true at the time spoken, and is true
until further information changes that status.
And I believe THAT is what Rev1:1 is exactly stating. [per the LATER 95ad writing of it, or thereabouts--like the SEQUENCE being shown in Matthew 22:7 (70ad events) and THEN Matthew 22:8 "THEN SAITH HE to his servants" necessarily comes AFTER those 70ad events... but Jesus was up in Heaven "after" the 70ad events...
]