Galahad, these matters have been discussed 100 times and more, and we get weary of repeating the obvious answers.
However as one of the only courteous posters you deserve at least some response. But it will be brief.
- The number of references to peter, Jesus, abraham are hardly important surely, because that "popularity" vote would have the unintended consequence of putting Abraham ahead of Jesus! I think I am right in saying however that where several disciples are listed together, Peter is always first.
so what does that show? It simply shows that Peter was the first to be called to be an Apostle. 'And passing along by the Sea of Galilee he saw Simon, and Andrew the brother of Simon casting a net in the sea,---- and going on a little further he saw James, the son of Zebedee and John his brother ---' (Mark 1.16-19). Peter was called first so he regularly appears first. It does not give him pre-eminence.
John had the favoured place at the Last Supper. Furthermore the disciples were still arguing about
who was the greatest before and at the Last Supper. So they clearly did not see Peter as in a position of leadership. He was certainly prominent. He was that type, regularly pushing himself forward. But that is all we can say.
In Jerusalem James was named first (Galatians 2.9). And it was
James who controlled the 'council' in Acts 15 and did the summing up. So had James superseded Peter?
- You do not mention the obvious reference to rock which is disappointing if you intended balance. The words peter and rock are the same stem, so if you accept that the conversation was in aramaic, which was indeed the first language of the less educated of the holy land, then Jesus says in Mat 16:18 either.
Simon......thou art (Meaning I shall call you) rock, and upon this rock I will build my church, or if you like.
thou art Peter and upon this Peter I will build my church.
But the only record that we have is in Greek and it differentiates petros from petra. Why did it not use petros and petros which was equally possible? The Greek specifically distinguishes between the two. So you are making yourself superior to the inspired writer. The
Greek speaking fathers all recognised this and saw the rock as what Peter had said or Christ Himself. Is your Greek superior to theirs?
Furthermore 'you are Peter does not mean 'I will call you Peter'. He had given Peter his name before He had called him (John 1.42). Jesus was simply playing with words. You are petros and upon THIS petra (what you have just said) I will build my church. This is acknowledged by all the Greek fathers.
Indeed the fact that Mark and Luke ignore this wordplay and lay all the stress on Peter's confession of Jesus confirms it. All the stress is on Peter's confession, 'you are the Christ, the Son of the living God'. THAT was the Rock.
In order to avoid the blindingly obvious some will tell you that the conversation was in Greek
It probably was as they were in a Greek speaking part of the world, and Jesus and His disciples were all bi-lingual. But it is not important. The only record we have is of the Greek text, the inspired Scripture. And that inspired Scripture made the distinction. IF it was spoken in Aramaic we do not know what exact words were used.
(nonsense Peter is recorded as speaking Galilean, a dialect of aramaic, which history records is the working language, and indeed the "fields of blood" speech say that aramaic was the language)
Peter spoke both Greek and Aramaic. How do you think he evangelised the Greek world? Both Greek and Aramaic were working languages in Galilee. But the important thing is that the inspired text is in GREEK.
so they try to distinguish petra and petros
but they are distinguished by the inspired author not by 'them'. He could have used petros in both cases. Both were good Greek words in regular use. He DELIBERATELY distinguished. And the Greek speaking fathers acknowledged the distinction.
to say.
Thou art rock but upon this other (large) rock , I will build my church.
Except nowhere does it say other..or but.
But it does say
'THIS' not YOU (referring to the declaration). why did he not say 'upon YOU as Peter? and use petros?
It would therefore actually say "thou art rock and upon this (large?) rock I will build my church
you overlook that Matthew has already used petra of a rock, and there it mean the words of Jesus (Matt 7.25). The distinction drew attention to this. Elsewhere when petra is used it always refers to Jesus.
In short they are splitting ungrammatical hairs.
Or possibly taking Scripture seriously.
Even Calvin and Luther both thought peter was the rock and Special.
well you have never proved that, but even if they did it is irrelevant. They were not native Greek speakers. The Greek speaking early fathers all made the distinction including Augustine of Hippo.
It strange how you keep stressing the early fathers, but when they disagree with you, you are totally silent.
The obvious reality is that the greek translator put petros /petra in for effect, not to change the meaning.
Do you really think that the inspired writer was that stupid? Why deliberately make a clear statement ambiguous? He made the distinction because he recognised the distinction.
From the beginning to end Matthew tries to present the gospel as scripture fulfilled, and refers back to the OT, and quotes Jesus doing that, a number of times because he knew his audience would understand the biblical references.
Perfectly true.
Jesus is also built up numerous times as a davidic King, and associates himself with that kingdom, for example riding a donkey as Solomon had.
In a sense Jesus IS the Davidic king. We can agree at last. But don't get excited, it won't last. I am not a heretic.
So the obvious meaning of "keys of the kingdom" TO HIS AUDIENCE OF JEWS
The keys of the kingly rule of Heaven are said by Jesus
to refer to binding and loosing (Matt 16.16-17). The whole audience of Jews (the Apostles) would therefore relate it to the keys of knowledge mentioned by Luke which were given to Scribes when they graduated
SO THAT THEY COULD BIND AND LOOSE.
would be a direct reference back to Hezekiah in Isaiah, where the "keys of the kingdom" are clearly represented as the symbol of an office of steward (similar to prime minister, a role with succession handed down).
But Eliakim had placed on his shoulder the key (singular) of the house of David (not of the kingdom). Why should anyone link Jesus' words back to such an obscure statement when the keys (plural) clearly
referred to a current Jewish custom?
Keys may well mean something else to todays audience, cutting themselves off from tradition, but that is what it would have meant to the jews who were obsessive about finding meaning from OT.
I would not say obsessive. But to Jews in the first century
keys which enabled binding and loosing only indicated one thing.
The keys given to Rabbis when they graduated
so that they could bind and loose. And all the disciples were given the power to bind and loose. So all were given keys.
As the early father Chrysostom said, the keys were also held by John:
For the Son of thunder, the beloved of Christ, the pillar of the Churches throughout the world, who holds the keys of heaven...(Philip Schaff, Nicene and Post-Nicene Fathers (Grand Rapids: Eerdmans, 1956), Volume XIV, Saint Chrysostom, Homilies on the Gospel of John, Homily 1.1, p. 1).
And a recognised Roman Catholic historian says:
The Fathers could the less recognize in the power of the keys, and the power of binding and loosing, any special prerogative or lordship of the Roman bishop, inasmuch as—what is obvious to any one at first sight—they did not regard a power first given to Peter, and afterwards conferred in precisely the same words on all the Apostles, as anything peculiar to him, or hereditary in the line of Roman bishops, and they held the symbol of the keys as meaning just the same as the figurative expression of binding and loosing (Janus (Johann Joseph Ignaz von Dollinger), The Pope and the Council (Boston: Roberts, 1869), pp. 70-74).
So when Jesus gives the "keys of the kingdom" to peter , it is no accident, it is direct reference back to the priministerial role of Davidic times, an office with succession, and that is how the jews would have understood it. So there it is in the old testament.
It is nothing of the kind. There was only ONE key of the house of David. And it was not 'given to him' it was placed on his shoulder. There is absolutely no reason to connect Jesus' words with that apart from Roman Catholic prejudice as they try to justify an erroneous doctrine.
Even the early fathers and RC historians do not agree with you
Finally when it comes to succession, consider the truth of early christianity. That it was handed down. which is the meaning of paradosis, tradition.
Yes it was handed down by the Apostles who had been with Jesus to the churches that they founded so that they would know the facts about the life and teaching of Jesus. This tradition was then recorded in the Gospels. The early church demonstrated that they only saw these as reliable tradition by excluding all other 'gospels'
And we see in the early church, the appointing of succession of bishops,
no, they did not appoint 'a succession of bishops'. They appointed overseers (episkopoi) to oversee each church. No church had a single overseer. Then as one retired or died another would be appointed. They were practical appointments similar to the elders in the synagogue. At this stage ther was not thought of a single bishop.
the empowerment of clergy
It was the Holy Spirit Who empowered whom He chose, as He does today in free churches. They were not seen as 'clergy'. That distinction came much later.
. Do you really think Jesus would want his church to die out after one generation? The new testament came later. Paul says "stay true to the tradition which we taught you by word of mouth and letter"
which they did do to such an extent that that tradition was finally recorded in the New Testament. Once the basic New Testament Scriptures were complete by the end of the first century there was no further need for 'the tradition' apart from the New Testament, as the early church recognised. The early fathers all made the Scriptures their court of appeal.
and later the new testament says "the pillar of truth is the church"
Yes the Apostolic church based on the teachings of the Apostles, which had to be the arbiter until the New Testament recorded that truth. It could hardly mean that all the independent churches around the world were the pillar of the truth for ever. That would have been ridiculous. Nor did it refer to Antioch, Alexandria or Rome. Timothy was not in any of those places. It was the worldwide church as supervised by the Apostles. That was why God ensured that the New Testament was written before the Apostles died.