Dispensationalism

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Mar 28, 2016
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#21
Not sure why or when or for what kind of reason the idea of dispensations has come into view?

Faith is the key in any dispensation.

In any dispensation God works the same way purifying the hearts of men by His faith that works in them to both will and do his good pleasure . If we are to look at division of time it can be in respect to generations. The generation of Adam began at the fall .The generation of Christ the first century reformation .This is when men lost an outward person in respect to the flesh to represent Him ,our unseen God. because of the reformation he has given us a new government according to 1 Corinthians 11 .It is represented by two ordinances, the hair covering doctrine and the bread and wine that remind of the upcoming wedding supper when we receive our new incorruptible bodies.

Acts 15:9 And put no difference between us and them, purifying their hearts by faith.
 

tanakh

Senior Member
Dec 1, 2015
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#22
It was invented by Cyrus Schofield. It is not just a tool for studying the Bible it is the basis of a whole theological system
that has blighted some sections of the Church for over a hundred years.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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#23
It was invented by Cyrus Schofield. It is not just a tool for studying the Bible it is the basis of a whole theological system
that has blighted some sections of the Church for over a hundred years.
Sure is CIScofield including JN Darby popularized the Dispensational approach of the words of God.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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#25
=====>>> DISPENSATIONALISM IS FALSE!!!!! Why? Because "Israel" is NOT distinct from "church".

Here are 10 reasons which disconfirm Dispensationalism. Please engage these Scriptural truths!


1. The church is the collective body (Col. 1:18,24) of individuals (1 Cor. 12:27) in the Messiah who inaugurated the New Covenant (Lk. 22:20). But only ISRAEL (Jer. 31:31; Heb. 8:8) participates in the New Covenant with YHVH. Therefore, the church IS the Israel of Jer. 31. Thus, there is no distinction between "Israel" and "church". Thus, Dispensationalism is false.
Am not still familiar with the Replacement Theology or supersessionism.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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#26
i don't agree with dispensationalism...but to keep it from being condemned for all the -wrong- reasons...i posted this thread some time ago...it quotes one of the primary sources of dispensationalism to show what dispensationalists -actually- teach...

http://christianchat.com/bible-disc...imary-sources-dispensationalist-theology.html
Ya, i see your views on eschatology, because the Dispensationalist view of eschatology is Premillennial.

Thank you for the link. But sure anyone can study Dispensation by Clarence Larkin.
 

Ahwatukee

Senior Member
Mar 12, 2015
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#27
Hello Bibleguy,

=====>>> DISPENSATIONALISM IS FALSE!!!!! Why? Because "Israel" is NOT distinct from "church".
Consider the following:

"on this rock I will build My church, and the gates of Hades not will prevail against it."

As I said in an earlier post, the word "οἰκοδομέω" which is translated as "I will build" is in the future tense. This would indicate that the church had not yet been build i.e. had not yet existed from the time that he spoke the above words. Ergo, "I will build" was something that, from the time Jesus spoke it, was yet to take place and is in fact still in the process of being built.

In Dan.9:24, a decree was given to the nation Israel and her holy city Jerusalem of seventy 'sevens" i.e. seventy seven year periods. Sixty-nine of those seven year periods i.e. 483 years had culminated with the Anointed One being cut off, which is referring to Christ's death on the cross. Sixty-nine of the seventy 'sevens' have been fulfilled, with one seven year period remaining as unfulfilled. At the time that Christ was crucified, God paused the fulfillment of that last seven years and began to focus on the building of the church, which is still in the process of being built. When the Father gives the word, the Son will descend from heaven and gather His church both dead and living. Following that, that ruler, the antichrist will make his covenant for seven years, which will initiate that last seven years, with God picking up where He left of with His people Israel, bringing to fulfillment that last seven years. At the same time, God will be pouring out his wrath upon a Christ rejecting world which is demonstrated in Dan.2:31-45 regarding Nebuchadnezzar's statue which represents all world governments/kingdoms with that ten-toed kingdom being the last human government. The Rock, which is figurative representing Jesus, falls on the feet of the statue smashing the entire statue into pieces like chaff on a threshing floor, blown away by the wind and never to be found again, which represents the dismantling of all human government for ever.

The rock falling on the feet of the statue will be accomplished via the seals, trumpets and bowl judgments which are the events of wrath that God is going to use to dismantle all human government. I might remind you also that when Jesus returns, He is going rule from--guess where--Jerusalem, from the throne of king David in fulfillment of the prophecy. Israel is a separate program from the church. The church is made up of both Jew and Gentiles, so that there is neither Jew nor Gentile, but all are in Christ as belonging to the church. Regarding Israel, God has unfinished business and promises to keep with them.

Regarding this, consider the following: In the book of Revelation the New Jerusalem has twelve gates each made from a single pearl, and on those gates will be written the names of the twelve tribes of Israel, representing the nation Israel (Rev.21:12). Likewise, there are twelve foundations of the wall of the city each made of a different precious gem, with the names of the twelve apostles written on each foundation, which is representing the church (Rev.21:14). This alone should demonstrate that both Israel and the church are two separate programs with God. Furthermore, both Israel and the church are those being represented by the 24 elders introduced in Rev.4:4, twelve representing Israel and twelve representing the church.

There is much, much more proof which demonstrates the nation Israel being a completely different program from the church. Israel was never the church and never will be the church. If you go to Ezekiel chapters 40 thru 48, you will read about a temple that will exist during the millennial period that has much different dimensions than any of the other temples before it and completely different from the dimensions of the new Jerusalem. This temple and the parceling of land mentioned in those chapters will be in fulfillment of the land that God originally promised Israel. During that time, it will not be a dwelling for Gentiles, but Israel.


Conclusion: Israel is not the church nor is the church Israel, as both are individual programs with God.
 

fredoheaven

Senior Member
Nov 17, 2015
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#28
=====>>> DISPENSATIONALISM IS FALSE!!!!! Why?

The Prophets are not abolished, but comprise the very foundation of the church (Eph. 2:20). The prophets require Torah-obedience. (Anti-Torah prophets are FALSE prophets! Mt. 7:15,22-23; Dt. 13:1-5; 18:20. Pentecostals/Charismatics…I love you…but beware! Many false (anti-Torah) prophets will arise, Mt. 24:11).
The prophets I know if there are of today is the false prophets. The true prophet of God has 2 functions, Forth-telling and Fore-telling. The OT prophets of God were until John and John the Beloved who wrote the Book of Revelation is the last NT prophet I know. Other than that were fake prophets. Prophets you said, comprised the foundation of the church therefore there will be no more foundation otherwise that will be another man's foundation Romans 15:20, "For other foundation can no man lay that which is laid..." 1 Cor 3:11

God bless
 
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redeemed2014

Guest
#29
Just another manmade invention.
Ephesians 1:10 That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him:

Ephesians 3:2 If ye have heard of the dispensation of the grace of God which is given me to you-ward:

Colossians 1:25 Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God;

It seems pretty biblical to me. We are also told to rightly divide the Word, the way the Lord dealt with Adam and Eve to the way the Lord dealt with Israel are different. If we do not divide the way the Lord dealt with mankind at certain times we end up with a lot of confusion and contradictions in the Bible.
 
Jun 14, 2016
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#30
Another unnecessary debate that does more to divide than unite,
as if it's dispensation vs. covenant.
There are elements of both that are true, and it seems to be the over-emphasis of certain parts of one to the exclusion of the other that causes rifts, on both 'sides'.

We are under the blood of a new covenant, Jesus being the final and only acceptable sacrifice for our sins,

and God also works in time and dispensations as He carries out His will for His people.

God bless you pamella in your studies, may the Lord lead you into a greater knowledge of Him and His Word.
I had the feeling this would be a good thread. :)
 
P

psalm6819

Guest
#31
=====>>> DISPENSATIONALISM IS FALSE!!!!! Why? Because "Israel" is NOT distinct from "church".

Here are 10 reasons which disconfirm Dispensationalism. Please engage these Scriptural truths!


1. The church is the collective body (Col. 1:18,24) of individuals (1 Cor. 12:27) in the Messiah who inaugurated the New Covenant (Lk. 22:20). But only ISRAEL (Jer. 31:31; Heb. 8:8) participates in the New Covenant with YHVH. Therefore, the church IS the Israel of Jer. 31. Thus, there is no distinction between "Israel" and "church". Thus, Dispensationalism is false.


2. The covenants BELONG TO ISRAEL (Eph. 2:12); but then, all covenant participants are necessarily ISRAELITES in covenant with God!

***You can’t participate in a covenant between God and Israel…unless you ARE an Israelite!

Thus, all Christians are Israelites. The Church is Israel. Therefore, the church is NOT a new dispensation, but it existed prior to the inauguration of the New Covenant (Mt. 18:17), and it extends even to Sinai (Gr. “ekklesia”, Ac. 7:38). See, also, “ekklesia” (in the Septuagint) used in reference to the assembly of Israel.


3. The Old Covenant and New Covenant can BOTH continue to be in force simultaneously. The promises of the New Covenant need not require the cancellation of the Old Covenant. Thus, the Old Covenant is ready (Gr. “engoos”, Heb. 8:13) to pass away, implying that it had not yet passed away as of the New-Covenant-Era time of the writing of the book of Hebrews. We function within both the new AND (Gr. “kai”, Mt. 13:52) old. “New and old”, not “new replaces old”.

NOT everything in the Torah (e.g., Dt. 30:8; 4:30) or Prophets (e.g., Jer. 16; Jer. 23; Jer. 33; Eze. 40-47; Zec. 14; Mal. 2-Mal. 3; etc.) is fulfilled. And, heaven and earth have not yet passed away (Mt. 5:18; Rev. 21:1 is yet future); thus, the Old Covenant must still be force (Mt. 5:18), even though the New Covenant is already inaugurated (Lk. 22:20). “New AND old”, not “new replaces old”.


4. All four covenants (Abrahamic, Mosaic, Davidic, and New) are in force simultaneously. Therefore, if we must use the term “dispensation”, we could say that all dispensations are simultaneously in force. But then traditional "dispensationalism" is false, because it assumes that the Mosaic dispensation is replaced by the Church dispensation.


5. Dispensationalism assumes the Mosaic Covenant (i.e., Torah) is replaced by the New Covenant and, thus, terminated.

My response: Heb. 8:13 (see above) confirms that both covenants function simultaneously.

And, Mt. 5:19 confirms that our obedience to Mosaic Covenant Torah is not only in force, but determines our position in the coming kingdom.

And, Torah (for Jeremiah) is Mosaic Torah; this Mosaic Torah passes directly into the New Covenant (Jer. 31:33; Heb. 8:10).

Dispensationalists agree that the word of God certainly includes the Law and temple ordinances. Yet they reject the word of God (via the claim that the Mosaic Covenant is terminated). Again, this is a blatant internal inconsistency within dispensationalism.

And, since Dt. 30:1-8 (and Zec. 14; Eze. 40-47; Mal. 2-3; Jer. 16; Jer. 23; Jer. 33; etc.) are not yet fulfilled, the Mosaic Covenant must still be in force, because NOT EVERYTHING in the Torah (or prophets) is yet fulfilled (Mt. 5:18).

In fact, Paul took part in a temple/sacrificial/Levitical vow to prove his SUPPORT for Torah-obedience (in general) and support for infant circumcision (in particular, Ac. 21:21-24). In imitation of Paul, Christians should promote (not oppose!) this support for infant circumcision and Torah-obedience (1 Cor. 11:1; Php. 4:9). Paul simply opposed adult male Gentile convert circumcision because: (a) it is not required to be initially saved (Ac. 15:1,11), and (b) it is not required as part of ongoing growth in obedience to the Torah of the covenants (1 Cor. 7:19). Thus, physically uncircumcised adult male Gentile converts can (and should) walk in obedience to the Torah of the covenants, even though they are physically uncircumcised (Rom. 2:26-27).

Torah defines holiness (Rom. 7:12), and Christians should be holy. Thus, Christians should obey Torah. This explains why Peter applies Lev. 11 to Christians (1 Pe. 1:16), and Paul applies Lev. 11:8 (2 Cor. 6:17) to Christians.

Torah defines righteousness (Rom. 7:12), and Christians should do righteous works of Torah-obedience (Dt 8:3; Mt. 4:4; 5:20, 1 Jn. 2:29; 3:7).

Torah defines goodness (Rom. 7:12), and Christians should do good. Thus, Christians should obey Torah.

We walk not in the flesh (which is incapable of, and opposes, Torah-obedience, Rom. 8:7), but in the Spirit (which, by implication, is a walk of Torah-obedience, cf. Heb. 10:15-16; Eze. 11:19-20; Eze. 36:26-27; Eze. 37:14,24; Is. 59:21). Thus, Paul obeyed God’s law (Torah, Rom. 7:22), but not so as to be justified by faithless (Gal. 3:12) Torah-obedience (Gal. 5:4), but to exemplify a true walk of righteous faithfulness (Rom. 1:17; Gal. 3:11; Heb. “emunah”, Hab. 2:4), that is, faithful Torah-obedience (see “emunah” in Ps. 119:30,86,138).

Christ is the end (i.e., purpose or aim) of Torah (Rom. 10:4). He is NOT the termination of the Torah, because Paul says that faithful Torah-obedience (Dt. 30:14) IS the very word of faith which he preaches (Dt. 30:14 subsumed in Rom. 10:8).

The Psalms are not abolished (Eph. 5:19), but are Scripture which can not be broken (Jn. 10:34-35). Thus, Christians should obey the Psalms; this entails Torah-obedience (Ps. 1; Ps. 19; Ps. 119; etc.)

The Prophets are not abolished, but comprise the very foundation of the church (Eph. 2:20). The prophets require Torah-obedience. (Anti-Torah prophets are FALSE prophets! Mt. 7:15,22-23; Dt. 13:1-5; 18:20. Pentecostals/Charismatics…I love you…but beware! Many false (anti-Torah) prophets will arise, Mt. 24:11).

Torah-disobedience (Eze. 36:19; Dt. 30:17-18) is shameful (Eze. 36:32), and leads to a terrible (Mt. 7:21-23) fiery (Mt. 13:41-42) fate. Thus, Christians promote (and grow in) faithful Torah-obedience (not promotion of Torah-termination!).

And, Jesus taught obedience to the greater AND lesser commands of Torah (Mt. 23:23), and even taught obedience to Torah-based judgments issued by Pharisees (Mt. 23:2-3). Jesus even sent Torah-teachers (Gr. “grammateus”, Mt. 23:34) to properly represent His ministry. Hence, faithful Torah-obedience is a sufficient condition for eternal life (Mt. 19:16-17). Jesus obeyed Torah and expected His disciples to do likewise (Lk. 6:40). And, these Torah-obedient teachings of Jesus should not be opposed, but should be spread to His disciples throughout the world (Mt. 28:19-20).

Jesus plainly affirmed that Torah-obedience is a sufficient condition of eternal life (Lk. 10:25-28).

These reasons jointly confirm that dispensationalism is WRONG in claiming that the Mosaic Covenant is terminated/abolished/replaced/not applicable.


6. Dispensationalists claim the (allegedly racially divisive) Mosaic Covenant is replaced by the (allegedly racially nondivisive) New Covenant.

My response: Racial inclusiveness in the New Covenant is NOT NEW!

The Mosaic Covenant does not require a dividing wall or barrier (Eph. 2:14, p. 195); rather, this dividing wall was a man-made dogmatic decree (Gr. “dogma”, Eph. 2:15). Mosaic Torah rejects such an ordinance, and INCLUDES any Gentile/Foreigner who desires to walk in faithful obedience to the covenant (Dt. 29:11-13; Dt. 31:12; Is. 56:6). Indeed, one-law-for-all (regardless of race) is the general theme in Mosaic Torah. “Your people shall be my people” is consistent with Torah (Ruth. 1:16).

What is newly revealed is the fact that racial inclusiveness (in ALL covenants, Eph. 2:11-12) is properly and fully implemented “in Christ Jesus through the Gospel” (Eph. 3:6). And, the anti-Torah racial divisions dogmatically asserted by the religious establishment must be understood as forever ultimately abolished “in Christ Jesus through the Gospel”.


7. Dispensationalists claim the Mosaic Covenant is fulfilled in (and replaced by) the New Covenant. They claim the Davidic Covenant is fulfilled in the New Covenant.

My response: We agree the Davidic Covenant and Mosaic Covenant are fulfilled in the New Covenant. But, the Davidic Covenant is fulfilled in conjunction with the Mosaic Covenant (1 Ki. 2:3-4). Therefore, the Davidic Covenant must be fulfilled in conjunction with BOTH the Mosaic Covenant and the New Covenant. But, dispensationalists deny the ongoing force of Mosaic Covenant. Thus, dispensationalism is disconfirmed.

And, the Davidic Covenant is fulfilled in a covenant of peace in which God’s ordinances and statutes are in force (Eze. 37:24-26). We agree that terms such as “commandments”, “statutes”, “judgments/ordinances” refer to Mosaic Torah in passages such as Dt. 6:1-2,17; 7:11; 8:11; 11:1; 12:1; 28:1,15; 30:10,16. So, the Davidic Covenant will be fully fulfilled in conjunction with obedience to Mosaic Torah. Thus, dispensationalism is inconsistent because it affirms passages which entail a Mosaic-Torah-obedient future fulfillment of the Davidic Covenant, yet it simultaneously denies the ongoing force of the Mosaic Torah Covenant.


8. Dispensationalists concede that the Mosaic Covenant depends upon the Abrahamic Covenant, and that the Mosaic Covenant is given to fulfill the Abrahamic Covenant, and that this is, indeed, the message of all the prophets.

My response: Then the Mosaic Covenant is still in force! The Abrahamic Covenant is not yet fully fulfilled; and the Abrahamic Covenant is to be fulfilled IN CONJUNCTION WITH the Mosaic Covenant (Jer. 11:1-5; Dt. 6:10-25; Dt. 30:1-8), but not until “the latter days” (Dt. 4:30) when an even greater exodus back to the Promised Land shall occur (Jer. 16:14-16; Jer. 23:1-8).

Therefore, the Mosaic Covenant has not yet been fully fulfilled as the Torah and prophets have declared that it will be fulfilled in the future. The Mosaic Covenant must, then, still be in force. Again, dispensationalism is disconfirmed.


9. Dispensationalists affirm that the new covenant is the form in which Abrahamic covenant blessing will be fulfilled. And, they also affirm that the new covenant will be given precisely to bring the Abrahamic covenant promise to fulfillment.

My response: Abrahamic Covenant blessing is fulfilled in conjunction with the Mosaic Covenant (Jer. 11:1-5; Dt. 6:10-25; Dt. 30:1-8). And, dispensationalists concede that the Abrahamic Covenant is fulfilled in the New Covenant. It follows that the Abrahamic Covenant is fulfilled in conjunction with both the Mosaic Covenant AND New Covenant. Yet dispensationalists claim the Mosaic Covenant is not in force. Thus, dispensationalism is again disconfirmed.


10. Dispensationalists affirm that the prophets who predicted the new covenant often spoke of the fulfillment of the covenant to David in the reign of a future king.

My response: Yes. The Messiah functions to fulfill the Davidic Covenant in the New Covenant. But Davidic Covenant fulfillment entails that the Mosaic Covenant is in force (1 Ki. 2:3-4) complete with sacrificial/ceremonial/Levitical Torah (Jer. 33:17-22) which the Messiah comes to restore (i.e., He comes to restore the Torah-obedient covenant with Levi, see Mal. 3:1-4). This brings fulfillment to the Abrahamic Covenant (Jer. 33:25-26).

***WE THUS INFER ----> ALL FOUR COVENANTS ARE NOW INTERDEPENDENT AND IN FORCE!

So again, Dispensationalism (due to its termination of the Mosaic Covenant) is disconfirmed.


======>>>>> CONCLUSION: Dispensationalism fails by affirming the three following FALSE claims:

1. The “church” is a dispensation distinct from the dispensation with “Israel”.

2. The already-inaugurated Abrahamic, Davidic, and New covenants are to be fully fulfilled in a future dispensation, and the Mosaic Covenant is fulfilled by Messiah and no longer in force.

3. The Torah of the Abrahamic, Mosaic, and Davidic covenants is not applicable to the “church”. The Torah of the New Covenant is applicable to the “church”, but is a Torah that is distinct from the Torah of the Abrahamic, Mosaic, and Davidic covenants.


APPLICATION: Let us affirm the following TRUTHS of Scripture!

1. "Church" is NOT distinct from "Israel".

2. The covenants (Abrahamic, Mosaic, Davidic, New) are not yet all FULLY fulfilled...and they WILL be more fully fulfilled in the future....thus, they are all still in force, and none is terminated (or abolished or no longer applicable to us).

3. We Christians participate in the covenants between YHVH and Israel, therefore all of us Christians are ISRAELITES.

4. We should grow in faithful OBEDIENCE (not opposition!) to the Torah of the many covenants in which we participate.


Remember? We are NOT excluded (Eph. 2:12). Thus we are INCLUDED within Israel as fellow Israelite participants in the Torah-laden covenants between YHVH and Israel.

Let us, therefore, JOYFULLY obey the Torah of the covenants in which we may participate, because of the grace and mercy of our Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ, who has saved us by faith (not works).

Amen!

blessings...
BibleGuy
Israel is Israel and the Church is the Church. Covenants were made with each. God keeps His Word, to Israel and to the Church(BTW there are Jews in the Church, hence the expression "one new man"
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#32
I see the op has not returned, I hope she got her question answered and was not scared away by all the arguing..

what is it that makes this topic so heated? it is not salvic in nature, No one will go to heaven based on how they interpret prophesy.. (unless of course they reject Jesus as the messiah who took the sin of the world)
 
Nov 22, 2015
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#33
Israel is Israel and the Church is the Church. Covenants were made with each. God keeps His Word, to Israel and to the Church(BTW there are Jews in the Church, hence the expression "one new man"

Amen...and there are also the true spiritual Israel and the natural Israel too. Just the same as there was Esau and Jacob in the OT. God changed Jacob's name to Israel.

Jacob and Esau are pictures of the Christian life with Esau being the flesh - Jacob being the new man in Christ - when he realizes who he is - his name gets changed to be called Israel - "prince with God"

Romans 9:6-7 (KJV)
[SUP]6 [/SUP] Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:

[SUP]7 [/SUP] Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called.

Galatians 6:14-16 (NASB)
[SUP]14 [/SUP] But may it never be that I would boast, except in the cross of our Lord Jesus Christ, through which the world has been crucified to me, and I to the world.
[SUP]15 [/SUP] For neither is circumcision anything, nor uncircumcision, but a new creation.
[SUP]16 [/SUP] And those who will walk by this rule, peace and mercy be upon them, and upon the Israel of God.
 
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RachelBibleStudent

Guest
#34
I see the op has not returned, I hope she got her question answered and was not scared away by all the arguing..

what is it that makes this topic so heated? it is not salvic in nature, No one will go to heaven based on how they interpret prophesy.. (unless of course they reject Jesus as the messiah who took the sin of the world)
some people have been led by certain non dispensationalists to mistakenly believe that it -is- a salvation issue...
 
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eternally-gratefull

Guest
#35
some people have been led by certain non dispensationalists to mistakenly believe that it -is- a salvation issue...
Yes, I have been told I am unsaved because I am premil, which is crazy, WHat does that have to do with faith in Christ and his payment for your sins, and eternal life??

The things satan will do...

 
Mar 28, 2016
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#36
It was invented by Cyrus Schofield. It is not just a tool for studying the Bible it is the basis of a whole theological system
that has blighted some sections of the Church for over a hundred years.

Thanks for offering that
 
E

eternally-gratefull

Guest
#37
It was invented by Cyrus Schofield. It is not just a tool for studying the Bible it is the basis of a whole theological system
that has blighted some sections of the Church for over a hundred years.
Oh, How is this so? Please, do tell

And even scofield would declare this was not the case, or his intention.


I say this only because I know there has been alot of false accusations thrown against him,, And that has been the root of alot of the problems. (IE Scofiled tought the gospel was different for each different dispensation, which is not true)
 
Dec 1, 2014
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#38
Hi Grace777x70!

Does Rom. 7:1-6 prove that "Christian obedience to law" = "spiritual adultery on our Lord" ?

If YES, then you have MUCH to explain!

I set forth 10 detailed reasons disconfirming dispensationalism (and which also disconfirm your position).

Will you engage these reasons?

If not, your view remains undefended.

AND, you have the "spiritual adultery" concept completely backwards.

Spiritual adultery (Heb. "zanah", Ex. 34:15-16) refers to those who turn AWAY from YHVH and then they obey the ways of other false gods.

Spiritual adultery is NOT obedience to God's commands!

Paul says we should KEEP God's comands (1 Cor. 7:19), NOT pretend they are "spiritual adultery"!

Please engage my position....lest your position remain undefended.

blessings...
BibleGuy
Your humility is quite charming.
 
Nov 22, 2015
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#40
Originally Posted by BibleGuy
Hi Grace777x70!

Does Rom. 7:1-6 prove that "Christian obedience to law" = "spiritual adultery on our Lord" ?

If YES, then you have MUCH to explain!

I set forth 10 detailed reasons disconfirming dispensationalism (and which also disconfirm your position).

Will you engage these reasons?

If not, your view remains undefended.

AND, you have the "spiritual adultery" concept completely backwards.

Spiritual adultery (Heb. "zanah", Ex. 34:15-16) refers to those who turn AWAY from YHVH and then they obey the ways of other false gods.

Spiritual adultery is NOT obedience to God's commands!

Paul says we should KEEP God's comands (1 Cor. 7:19), NOT pretend they are "spiritual adultery"!

Please engage my position....lest your position remain undefended.

blessings...
BibleGuy


Your humility is quite charming.

I like to do what Paul says to do in these types of discussions with the law and law-keepers that come in after the gospel of the grace of Christ has been preached.

Titus 3:9 (NASB)
[SUP]9 [/SUP] But avoid foolish controversies and genealogies and strife and disputes about the Law, for they are unprofitable and worthless.

I don't like the aspect of going back to the law when it is committing spiritual adultery on our Lord. Romans 7:1-6.

The law of love and the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus is all that I need now to walk by the Spirit within me just as Paul says. I don't need to "obey" Lev. 18:23 to know not to have intercourse with animals.

This picture says it all.


adultery-3.jpg