“But either way if Christ requires some additional things that are not required in the law of Moses it is not a contradiction to the law of Moses.”
What are the additional things? These are what I’m commenting on, these additional things you must address for your argument to hold water.
If Jesus added fornication only divorce with no remarriage, then you have a problem with the Deuteronomic permission.
It is possible to stretch the word in a way to eliminate the Deuteronomic permission for remarriage but in no way can it be twisted into 100% prohibition of remarriage.
What are the additional things? These are what I’m commenting on, these additional things you must address for your argument to hold water.
If Jesus added fornication only divorce with no remarriage, then you have a problem with the Deuteronomic permission.
It is possible to stretch the word in a way to eliminate the Deuteronomic permission for remarriage but in no way can it be twisted into 100% prohibition of remarriage.
First of all, you are not addressing the interpretation I hold to, the one the NIV adopted, the one also seen in the English words in the interlinear I liked to of Deuteronomy 24.
Again, the idea is that WHEN a man has found something unclean about his wife that displeases him, gives her a write of divorce, sends her away, she marries another man, and he divorces her or dies, then the first husband must not take her as a wife.
The first husband not taking her as a wife is a command part.... not God telling Moses to give writings of divorce. That's the interpretation I am describing, and it aligns with what Jesus says in both Mark 10 and Matthew 19. Look at it. The Pharisees ask why Moses COMMANDED to give her a writing of divorcement. Jesus responded that Moses, because of the hardness of their hearts ALLOWED divorce, but from the beginning it was not so.
You are missing major points of the conversation here.
God has the right to forbid certain extremes. The NKJV translates Paul as saying that God 'winked' at idolatry, when He was addressing a Gentile audience, but now is calling all men to repent. Other translations say God overlooked idolatry.
Divorce and remarriage was not the original intention. Moses gave the law. He let people divorce and remarry because of the hardness of their hearts. In this midst of this situation, God puts a restriction that the man may not take back a remarried wife after a second divorce or the second husband dies. Now, the new Lawgiver comes, and He clarifies that it is adultery for the man to put away his wife, except it be for fornication (speaking in the context of putting away with a certificate).
You are interpreting 'permission' to divorce and remarry with a certificate into Deuteronomy 24, just as the Pharisees did. Christ said Moses allowed it, but from the beginning it was not so.
Or you must conclude Moses allowed this against the will of God and Jesus is here to correct it (which also creates problems)
Either way, there is a problem for you with your interpretation, because Christ says this whosoever puts away his wife... not just the ones who put away without a certificate. And it is clear from Deuteronomy 24 that the scenario involves putting/sending the wife away WITH a certificate, so the use of the term 'put away' does not preclude the use of a certificate.