Foreknowledge: Foreordination is "According to Foreknowledge"

  • Christian Chat is a moderated online Christian community allowing Christians around the world to fellowship with each other in real time chat via webcam, voice, and text, with the Christian Chat app. You can also start or participate in a Bible-based discussion here in the Christian Chat Forums, where members can also share with each other their own videos, pictures, or favorite Christian music.

    If you are a Christian and need encouragement and fellowship, we're here for you! If you are not a Christian but interested in knowing more about Jesus our Lord, you're also welcome! Want to know what the Bible says, and how you can apply it to your life? Join us!

    To make new Christian friends now around the world, click here to join Christian Chat.
S

shan93

Guest
#41
God is all powerful and all knowing so it would seem that he must know every detail about the past, present and future. The bible leaves us in no doubt that he has foreknowledge. But according to the bible Gods foreknowledge is selective not total! For example revelation 7:9, 14 God foretold that a great crowd of righteous humans will survive the destruction of the wicked in the future. But God does not give a specific number of that crowd. If God predetermines everything including every nasty accident, we could rightly blame him for all the suffering in the world. So the teaching of predestination actually dishonours God and makes him seem unjust cruel and unloving-the very opposite of what the bible says about him Deuteronomy 32:4.
 

Dan58

Senior Member
Nov 13, 2013
1,991
338
83
#42
Re: Another Plagiarized Paste?

He chose us, but we didn't yet exist.

Well, that's a neat trick... Illogical, nonsensical, and likely impossible.

All men come from Adam & Eve, a race.
Chapter and verse please
?

None of your verses teach that. I can't believe we are doing to be doing Theology 101 here with a heretic who denies the omniscience of God.

Where exactly did I deny that God is omniscient? My definition is not what yours is, so you came to your own conclusion. Your thinking is one dimensional, you don't comprehend free-will or free choice. If God knew what everyone's decisions would be in advance, what is the purpose of us being here? Why is there a judgement day, why not just throw those who God knows will reject him directly into the Lake of Fire? Because every individual can independently have a change of heart. Your ideology conflicts with everything the bible teaches. Jesus said; "Whosoever believeth in him should not perish" and belief requires a choice. God is all-knowing, but He doesn't have foreknowledge of everyone's choice.


Your referring to me as a heretic displays an aura of arrogance that has made me reluctant to discuss this subject any further.
 
H

Hoffco

Guest
#43
God knows all things because He plans all things. God did not create man with a will free from God's dictates. God can not create a rock so heavy that he cannot move it. God would never deny His Himself, He did not create a man outside His control. God created all things to Glorify Himself. Not even God could know the acts of a free man. I have to go with the God of the Bible. The God of "free will"is an idol of man's creating. Love to all, Hoffco
 
O

oldthennew

Guest
#44
EPHESIANS 1:3-4-5-6.

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ,
Who has blessed us with all Spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ:

According as He has chosen us in Him before the foundation of the world,
that we should be Holy and without blame before Him in love:

Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to Himself,
according to the good pleasure of His will,

To the praise of the glory of His grace, wherein He has made us acceptable
in The Beloved.
 

Atwood

Senior Member
May 1, 2014
4,995
53
48
#45
YHWH is Omniscient: He Knows All Things Regardless of Time

WE HAVE AN OMNISCIENT GOD


< 1 Jn 3:20
God is greater than our heart, and he knows everything.

Psalm 147:4-5:
“He determines the number of the stars and calls them each by name. Great is our Lord and mighty in power; his understanding has no limit.”

< Jn 21:17:

Lord, you know everything

Ps 147:5 ESV
Great is our Lord, and abundant in power; his understanding is beyond measure.

Isaiah 40:28
Have you not known? Have you not heard? The Lord is the everlasting God, the Creator of the ends of the earth. He does not faint or grow weary; his understanding is unsearchable.

Heb 4:13 ESV
And no creature is hidden from his sight, but all are naked and exposed to the eyes of him to whom we must give account.


< Psalm 139:
O Jehovah, thou hast searched me, and known me.
Thou knowest my downsitting and mine uprising;
Thou understandest my thought afar off.
Thou searchest out my path and my lying down,
And art acquainted with all my ways.
For there is not a word in my tongue,
But, lo, O Jehovah, thou knowest it altogether.
Thou hast beset me behind and before,
And laid thy hand upon me.
Such knowledge is too wonderful for me;
It is high, I cannot attain unto it. . . .

If I say, Surely the darkness shall overwhelm me,
And the light about me shall be night;
Even the darkness hideth not from thee,
But the night shineth as the day:
The darkness and the light are both alike to thee. . . .

And in thy book they were all written,
Even the days that were ordained for me,
When as yet there was none of them.

“The eyes of the Lord are in every place, keeping watch on the evil and the good” (Proverbs 15:3).

< Isaiah 57:15:
"the high and lofty One Who inhabits eternity, whose name is Holy"

Psalm 33:13-15 : “The Lord looks from heaven; He sees all the sons of men. From the place of His dwelling He looks on all the inhabitants of the earth; He fashions their hearts individually; He considers all their works


< 1 Chron 28:9: “As for you, my son Solomon, know the God of your father, and serve Him with a loyal heart and with a willing mind; for the Lord searches all hearts and understands all the intent of the thoughts. . . .

< Rom 11:

O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and the knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past tracing out! For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or who hath been his counsellor? or who hath first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again? For of him, and through him, and unto him, are all things. To him be the glory forever. Amen.


----------------------------
DISCUSSION

If a passage says that God is going to know something or "Now I know," or "I will know" that logically proves nothing about Him not knowing or not having known somethings in the past. "Today John eats peanuts" . . . it is a logical fallacy called Denying the Antecedent to argue from such a statement that yesterday John did not eat peanuts. And if God says, "Now I know" that can also be understood to mean that He comes into an intimate relationship with a fact, not that he was ignorant of it before.

"Free will arguments" are largely speculative. And while we speculate we may say that whatever is the extent of man's "free will," that extent does not negate any amount of determinism either, for the "free will" may be determined also.

God infallibly predicts the future and even gives that ability to predict as an apologetic for His existence as opposed to idols (see Isaiah chapter 40-50, here & there). By making predictions it is indicated that such future events must happen as predicted. And at the same time men are held responsible for their desires and actions.

Isaiah 42:9 ESV
"Behold, the former things have come to pass, and new things I now declare; before they spring forth I tell you of them.”

It may well be a mystery how God knows the future and predicts it and how He predestines man to calling, justification, and glorification, while at the same time men are aware their ability to make real decisions (influenced by their perception of what is good for them, which came largely from external sources; influenced by more or less compulsion and manipulation; influenced by what is possible for them to do and what they believe is possible for them to do), God is yet sovereign and controls the course of history to His own end.

His understanding has no limit, and He knows everything.
 
H

Hoffco

Guest
#46
To Atwood, I think, what you are reasoning out is the fact that God has emotions and God's statements have contextual limitations, because of our finiteness. As we are created in Gods image ,we can see, our emotions come from our Creator. We are free,moral, responsible, finite, limited, beings, under God and our fellow men. After the Fall, we must add, we are sinful. God is the only being, WHO is under no one or any thing but Himself. Because God is totally faithful to Himself, we can trust Him to do exactly as He says. God will never deny Himself; Therefore , He will deny "knowing",Loving, any evil living person. God has feelings, and He is free in expressing His feeling. Seen we are the offspring of God, Acts 17, we can reason, God is like us, without the sin , of course. We can make our Father in Heaven very happy or very sad. Love to all who love God in sincerity. Hoffco I am like God, my statements are true, as far as they go, thus limited to the context. In an other context, my words ,may seem contrary to my previous ones.
 
U

Ukorin

Guest
#47
Re: YHWH is Omniscient: He Knows All Things Regardless of Time

WE HAVE AN OMNISCIENT GOD


< 1 Jn 3:20
God is greater than our heart, and he knows everything.

Psalm 147:4-5:
“He determines the number of the stars and calls them each by name. Great is our Lord and mighty in power; his understanding has no limit.”

< Jn 21:17:

Lord, you know everything

Ps 147:5 ESV
Great is our Lord, and abundant in power; his understanding is beyond measure.

Isaiah 40:28
Have you not known? Have you not heard? The Lord is the everlasting God, the Creator of the ends of the earth. He does not faint or grow weary; his understanding is unsearchable.

Heb 4:13 ESV
And no creature is hidden from his sight, but all are naked and exposed to the eyes of him to whom we must give account.


< Psalm 139:
O Jehovah, thou hast searched me, and known me.
Thou knowest my downsitting and mine uprising;
Thou understandest my thought afar off.
Thou searchest out my path and my lying down,
And art acquainted with all my ways.
For there is not a word in my tongue,
But, lo, O Jehovah, thou knowest it altogether.
Thou hast beset me behind and before,
And laid thy hand upon me.
Such knowledge is too wonderful for me;
It is high, I cannot attain unto it. . . .

If I say, Surely the darkness shall overwhelm me,
And the light about me shall be night;
Even the darkness hideth not from thee,
But the night shineth as the day:
The darkness and the light are both alike to thee. . . .

And in thy book they were all written,
Even the days that were ordained for me,
When as yet there was none of them.

“The eyes of the Lord are in every place, keeping watch on the evil and the good” (Proverbs 15:3).

< Isaiah 57:15:
"the high and lofty One Who inhabits eternity, whose name is Holy"

Psalm 33:13-15 : “The Lord looks from heaven; He sees all the sons of men. From the place of His dwelling He looks on all the inhabitants of the earth; He fashions their hearts individually; He considers all their works


< 1 Chron 28:9: “As for you, my son Solomon, know the God of your father, and serve Him with a loyal heart and with a willing mind; for the Lord searches all hearts and understands all the intent of the thoughts. . . .

< Rom 11:

O the depth of the riches both of the wisdom and the knowledge of God! how unsearchable are his judgments, and his ways past tracing out! For who hath known the mind of the Lord? or who hath been his counsellor? or who hath first given to him, and it shall be recompensed unto him again? For of him, and through him, and unto him, are all things. To him be the glory forever. Amen.


----------------------------
DISCUSSION

If a passage says that God is going to know something or "Now I know," or "I will know" that logically proves nothing about Him not knowing or not having known somethings in the past. "Today John eats peanuts" . . . it is a logical fallacy called Denying the Antecedent to argue from such a statement that yesterday John did not eat peanuts. And if God says, "Now I know" that can also be understood to mean that He comes into an intimate relationship with a fact, not that he was ignorant of it before.

"Free will arguments" are largely speculative. And while we speculate we may say that whatever is the extent of man's "free will," that extent does not negate any amount of determinism either, for the "free will" may be determined also.

God infallibly predicts the future and even gives that ability to predict as an apologetic for His existence as opposed to idols (see Isaiah chapter 40-50, here & there). By making predictions it is indicated that such future events must happen as predicted. And at the same time men are held responsible for their desires and actions.

Isaiah 42:9 ESV
"Behold, the former things have come to pass, and new things I now declare; before they spring forth I tell you of them.”

It may well be a mystery how God knows the future and predicts it and how He predestines man to calling, justification, and glorification, while at the same time men are aware their ability to make real decisions (influenced by their perception of what is good for them, which came largely from external sources; influenced by more or less compulsion and manipulation; influenced by what is possible for them to do and what they believe is possible for them to do), God is yet sovereign and controls the course of history to His own end.

His understanding has no limit, and He knows everything.
You are correct, God's foreknowledge is infinite, and only limited by the extent that time itself is limited (beginning of time to eternity future).

By defining the Word 'foreknowledge' or 'foreknown' to be exclusively relational, I was not putting God's plan as the primary purpose of election, but rather His love. His plan is primary, and His love is the secondary driving force in our election.

I shouldn't have limited the definition of 'prognosko' to mean that 'we were predestined according to God's relationship with us that He had through His omniscient knowledge'. That idea is too exclusive, where 'prognosko' is more open.

I am trying to compile a list of the verses that deal with God's purpose, reason, and method in predestination, election, choosing, etc.

Seabass has made the argument that Calvinistic Election gives no reason for God's predestination of individuals,
and has then asserted that our (future)obedience is the primary reason for election.
I intend to give a solid verse list to disprove him.
 
H

Hoffco

Guest
#48
To Ukorin, The only bases upon which God choses us is His love, knowledge has nothing to do with our election by God. It is only, because God chose to love, that He loved certain ones and thus predestined them to salvation, and God chose out of wrath to appoint others to be lost. Eph. 1:4b-6 "...in love, Having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will, to the praise of the glory of His grace by which He made us accepted in the Beloved." Love Hoffco
 
H

Hoffco

Guest
#49
Re: YHWH is Omniscient: He Knows All Things Regardless of Time

God's foreknowledge id infinite, it is not limited by time. God knows the END as well as the beginning and middle. Because He is all sovereign, none of His eternal plans can be changed. Love Hoffco
 
U

Ukorin

Guest
#50
To Ukorin, The only bases upon which God choses us is His love, knowledge has nothing to do with our election by God. It is only, because God chose to love, that He loved certain ones and thus predestined them to salvation, and God chose out of wrath to appoint others to be lost. Eph. 1:4b-6 "...in love, Having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will, to the praise of the glory of His grace by which He made us accepted in the Beloved." Love Hoffco
:) that verse is #5 on my list.
I will post tonight or early tomorrow. I don't want to miss any important ones.

I think that the 'appointment to wrath' cannot be considered predestination. It is not described the way predestination is.
There is no verse that points to God hating anyone before the foundations of the world were laid.
We all chose Hell, but He predestined some to a better path, not of their own will or work, but out of His love, grace, and mercy. (And He provides the Spirit to those He chose, to bring about His election).
 
Last edited by a moderator:
May 2, 2014
1,060
12
0
#51
In another thread the issue of foreknowledge came up as God's choosing or foreordination is said in scripture to be kata (according to) foreknowledge.

The two Greek words are prognōosis and progi(g)nōskō.
(In a classical Greek lexicon there will be the 2nd gamma [g], but not in a NT lexicon.

Prognōsis occurs twice:

acts 2:23
Ye men of Israel, hear these words: Jesus of Nazareth, a man approved of God unto you by mighty works and wonders and signs which God did by him in the midst of you, even as ye yourselves know; him, being delivered up by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye by the hand of lawless men did crucify and slay.

1 Pet 1:1-2
Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the elect who are sojourners of the Dispersion in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia, according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace be multiplied.

Progi(g)nōskō occurs a few times:

Acts 26:5
My manner of life then from my youth up, which was from the beginning among mine own nation and at Jerusalem, know all the Jews; having previously known me from the first, if they be willing to testify, that after the straitest sect of our religion I lived a Pharisee.

[It is the person Paul was was known, yet things about Paul are evidently included in the knowing, namely that he was a Pharisee.]

2 Pet 3:17 Ye therefore, beloved, knowing these things beforehand [προγινώσκοντες], beware lest, being carried away with the error of the wicked, ye fall from your own stedfastness.

Rom 8:28
For whom he foreknew, he also foreordained . . . .

Rom 11:2
God did not cast off his people [Israel] whom he foreknew.

1 pet 1:20
Christ: who was foreknown indeed before the foundation of the world, but was manifested at the end of the times for your sake, who through him are believers in God,

The BDAG Lexicon is the standard NT Greek Lexicon. For some reason (influence of Lutheranism?) BDAG claims that foreknowledge encroaches on the semantic domain of election (God's sovereign choosing). To me this encroachment seems unlikely from the general use of the terms and also by reducing election according to foreknowledge to a tautology: "elect according to election." [BDAG is abbridged & spaced for clarity]

προγινώσκω
1. to know beforehand or in advance, have foreknowledge (of)
τί someth. affliction Hermas Similitudes 7:5.
Abs.
προγινώσκοντες since you know this (i.e. what the context makes clear) in advance 2 Pt 3:17.

Of God πάντα Hermas Mandates 4, 3, 4.

—Closely connected is the idea of choice that suggests foreknowledge
2. choose beforehand τινά someone Ro 8:29. τὸν λαὸν αὐτοῦ 11:2

Pass. of Christ προεγνωσμένος πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου 1 Pt 1:20.

Know from time past προγινώσκοντές με ἄνωθεν Ac 26:5

πρόγνωσις
1. foreknowledge πρ. λαμβάνειν τελείαν receive complete foreknowledge 1 Clement 44:2.

2. predetermination, of God’s omniscient wisdom and intention (LXX Judith 9:6)
w. βουλή Ac 2:23.
κατὰ πρόγνωσιν θεοῦ πατρός destined by God the Father (NRSV) 1 Pt 1:2

Since God is omniscient, included in his objective foreknowledge must be everything, including every detail about everyone, their temperaments, their attitudes, their natures, their attributes, their decisions, and whether or not they will believe in the Lord Jesus as Savior.

I was taught by an excellent Bible teacher that foreknow/foreknowledge is fore-entering into an intimate relationship with. And the proof text was from Amos where a Hebrew term (not having "fore-") on it was used to illustrate how "know" has a special use for intimate relationship (Israel is the only nation that God knew.)

But can one limit foreknowledge to a special meaning of knowledge (without "fore-")? Is it not true that His foreknowledge must include absolutely all there is to know about persons (& everything else!) Certainly part of God's foreknowledge must include the knowledge that persons will believe or not believe (not that the text specifies belief or anything in particular that was in the relevant knowledge).

Do you exclude the rest of God's omniscience from the foreknowledge (according to which God chose)?

It is obvious that had the Lord wished to make it clear with the idea of "fore-loved," He could have said precisely that (to wit, "chosen according to the love which the Lord had for certain persons in eternity past). But by saying that, it is hard to make choosing come logically after the loving, if the special love be confined to a certain group -- that would make election prior to the loving -- so it seems to me. So it looks like if one interprets foreknowledge as knowledge in the intimate sense of know:, then a sort of nonsense seems to result:
choosing based on fore-intimacy which was based on choosing!

While no text says that it was "a man's belief in Christ which was foreknown," some (like Thiessen's Systematic Theology (Thiessen believing in eternal security, BTW) explain that it was God's foreknowledge of man's belief in Christ which resulted in the election/choosing/foreordaining/predestination of the Christian.

I am mulling this over.

I put a link below to a good article on this:

http://chafer.nextmeta.com/files/v9n1_3the_meaning_of_proginwskw.pdf

I'd suggest that the typical understanding of foreknowledge is not what the Bible teaches. The Jews were the elect people of God because God "knew before" Abraham. They were the elect because Abraham obeyed God. I'd suggest that this idea of God knowing who will and will not believe have nothing to nothing to do with the foreknowledge spoken of in the Scriptures, the word simply means to before know. There is no passage in Scripture that I'm aware of that requires a definition of proginosko meaning God knowing someone's destinybefore the foundation of the word
 
H

Hoffco

Guest
#52
To Butch5 Sorry you are totally ignorant of the Bible. As to said , the Bible does not know what it is talking about . You, obviously don't believe that God inspired the Bible and it is perfectly given to mankind by God Himself, in the original letters. Your are not a Bible believer, so don't try to interpret God's word. PLEASE stay of of the discussion, Sorry if I read you wrong. Next time, speak God's WORDS ONLY. LOVE to all, Hoffco
 
May 2, 2014
1,060
12
0
#53
To Butch5 Sorry you are totally ignorant of the Bible. As to said , the Bible does not know what it is talking about . You, obviously don't believe that God inspired the Bible and it is perfectly given to mankind by God Himself, in the original letters. Your are not a Bible believer, so don't try to interpret God's word. PLEASE stay of of the discussion, Sorry if I read you wrong. Next time, speak God's WORDS ONLY. LOVE to all, Hoffco
Dude, you don't know anything about me. if anyone is ignorant it's not me. What I said does describe the Bible.
 

Atwood

Senior Member
May 1, 2014
4,995
53
48
#54
The Jews were the elect people of God because God "knew before" Abraham.
Proof?

They were the elect because Abraham obeyed God.
What does God's knowing Abe have to do with Jews being elect becs Abe obeyed God? Proof for that one?

I'd suggest that this idea of God knowing who will and will not believe have nothing to nothing to do with the foreknowledge spoken of in the Scriptures, the word simply means to before know.
But knowledge has content. Of course God is omniscient and has always known all before there were things that creatures might know. The question is what was it in God's foreknowledge according to which He chose/elected? I don't think it is revealed.

There is no passage in Scripture that I'm aware of that requires a definition of proginosko meaning God knowing someone's destiny before the foundation of the word
The scripture is clear that election/foreordination was "according to foreknowledge" and that everyone foreknown was foreordained.

The time of the "fore-" is before creation of the world.

Eph 1

'he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blemish before him in love: having foreordained us unto adoption as sons through Jesus Christ unto himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, to the praise of the glory of his grace,'

The chosing was according to foreknowledge.
 
May 2, 2014
1,060
12
0
#55
Proof?



What does God's knowing Abe have to do with Jews being elect becs Abe obeyed God? Proof for that one?
NKJ Genesis 26:1 There was a famine in the land, besides the first famine that was in the days of Abraham. And Isaac went to Abimelech king of the Philistines, in Gerar.
2 Then the LORD appeared to him and said: "Do not go down to Egypt; live in the land of which I shall tell you.
3 "Dwell in this land, and I will be with you and bless you; for to you and your descendants I give all these lands, and I will perform the oath which I swore to Abraham your father.
4 "And I will make your descendants multiply as the stars of heaven; I will give to your descendants all these lands; and in your seed all the nations of the earth shall be blessed;
5 "because Abraham obeyed My voice and kept My charge, My commandments, My statutes, and My laws." (Gen 26:1-5 NKJ)



But knowledge has content. Of course God is omniscient and has always known all before there were things that creatures might know. The question is what was it in God's foreknowledge according to which He chose/elected? I don't think it is revealed.
That is the point of my post. Proginosko means to know before, ie. in the past. God proginosko (before knew) Abraham and made promises to him. He made promises to Abraham and his seed.

35 "To you it was shown, that you might know that the LORD Himself is God; there is none other besides Him.
36 "Out of heaven He let you hear His voice, that He might instruct you; on earth He showed you His great fire, and you heard His words out of the midst of the fire.
37 "And because He loved your fathers, therefore He chose their descendants after them; and He brought you out of Egypt with His Presence, with His mighty power,
38 "driving out from before you nations greater and mightier than you, to bring you in, to give you their land as an inheritance, as it is this day.
39 "Therefore know this day, and consider it in your heart, that the LORD Himself is God in heaven above and on the earth beneath; there is no other. (Deu 4:35-39 NKJ)

11 "Then the LORD said to me,`Arise, begin your journey before the people, that they may go in and possess the land which I swore to their fathers to give them.'
12 "And now, Israel, what does the LORD your God require of you, but to fear the LORD your God, to walk in all His ways and to love Him, to serve the LORD your God with all your heart and with all your soul,
13 "and to keep the commandments of the LORD and His statutes which I command you today for your good?
14 "Indeed heaven and the highest heavens belong to the LORD your God, also the earth with all that is in it.
15 "The LORD delighted only in your fathers, to love them; and He chose their descendants after them, you above all peoples, as it is this day. (Deu 10:11-15 NKJ)

7 "You are the LORD God, Who chose Abram, And brought him out of Ur of the Chaldeans, And gave him the name Abraham;
8 You found his heart faithful before You, And made a covenant with him To give the land of the Canaanites, The Hittites, the Amorites, The Perizzites, the Jebusites, And the Girgashites-- To give it to his descendants. You have performed Your words, For You are righteous. (Neh 9:7-8 NKJ)

God before knew Abraham.






The scripture is clear that election/foreordination was "according to foreknowledge" and that everyone foreknown was foreordained.
I think you're referring to 1 Peter here. I would submit that firstly, 1 Peter is addressed to Jewish believers, so they were the seed of Abraham. However, I would also submit that the word order has been changed in that verse. I suspect it's to fit the theology of the translators. If you look at the Greek text you find that it does't say elect according to foreknowledge. Here is Young's literal translation.

YLT 1 Peter 1:1 Peter, an apostle of Jesus Christ, to the choice sojourners of the dispersion of Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia, and Bithynia,
2 according to a foreknowledge of God the Father, in sanctification of the Spirit, to obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace to you and peace be multiplied! (1Pe 1:1-2 YLT)

The word "choice" in verse one is the word "eclectos". The passage says to the elect sojourners not elect according to forknowledge. Here is is the Greek text.

BGT 1 Peter 1:1 Πέτρος ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐκλεκτοῖς παρεπιδήμοις διασπορᾶς Πόντου, Γαλατίας, Καππαδοκίας, Ἀσίας καὶ Βιθυνίας,
2 κατὰ πρόγνωσιν θεοῦ πατρὸς ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος εἰς ὑπακοὴν καὶ ῥαντισμὸν αἵματος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη. (1Pe 1:1-2 BGT)

Notice elect is in the first verse in both Young's translation and the Greek text.



The time of the "fore-" is before creation of the world.

Eph 1

'he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blemish before him in love: having foreordained us unto adoption as sons through Jesus Christ unto himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, to the praise of the glory of his grace,'

The chosing was according to foreknowledge.
This is talking about choosing not foreknowledge. However, this passage is part of a Hebraism. Verses 3-12 are a Hebrew Praise to God. Paul is praising God for what He has done for the Jewish people. He not talking about the Gentiles here. He says that God had foreordained them to adoption. In Romans 9 Paul says that the adoption belongs to the Jews.

I say the truth in Christ, I lie not, my conscience also bearing me witness in the Holy Ghost,
2 That I have great heaviness and continual sorrow in my heart.
3 For I could wish that myself were accursed from Christ for my brethren, my kinsmen according to the flesh: {accursed: or, separated}
4 Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises; {covenants: or, testaments}
5 Whose are the fathers, and of whom as concerning the flesh Christ came, who is over all, God blessed for ever. Amen.



(Rom 9:1-5 KJV)
 

Atwood

Senior Member
May 1, 2014
4,995
53
48
#56
To Ukorin, The only bases upon which God choses us is His love, knowledge has nothing to do with our election by God. It is only, because God chose to love, that He loved certain ones and thus predestined them to salvation, and God chose out of wrath to appoint others to be lost. Eph. 1:4b-6 "...in love, Having predestined us to adoption as sons by Jesus Christ to Himself, according to the good pleasure of His will, to the praise of the glory of His grace by which He made us accepted in the Beloved." Love Hoffco
Well Hoffco,

Scripture says, "foreknowledge," chosing is according to foreknowledge. How can you exclude knowledge? I see how you might want to interpret knowledge as intimate relationship (despite the prefixed fore-). But is also obvious that the text does not say "love" and it could have where it says "foreknew."

Now your quote of Eph 1 would bolster the idea by suggesting that foreknew is parallel with in love if (as you seem to suggest) that "in love" goes with the following "having predestined). I don't know which version you quoted, but the ASV puts "in love at the end of the verse as does the Greek (so also ESV, NASB, KJV all put "in love" at the end of the verse, not connected to the following).

He chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blemish before him in love: having foreordained us unto adoption as sons through Jesus Christ unto himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, to the praise of the glory of his grace,"

The prep phrase "in love" is separated quit a distance from "he chose." But it comes right before "having foreordained us."


ἐξελέξατο ἡμᾶς ἐν αὐτῷ πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου εἶναι ἡμᾶς ἁγίους καὶ ἀμώμους κατενώπιον αὐτοῦ ἐν ἀγάπῃ,

προορίσας . . .

There is this Greek sandwich style which can occur; so I can see how some might want to make "he chose" and "in love" the bread with the meat between, as it were, and then interpret that He chose in love. I have been reading this as "before Him in love," taking "in love" as connected to the first thing in the prior context to which it could readily attach (εἶναι to be) Some connect "in love to the following: "in love having foreordained us," which you seem to suggest by the way you quote it. At this point I am wishing that Paul had used punctuation.



 
May 2, 2014
1,060
12
0
#57
Well Hoffco,

Scripture says, "foreknowledge," chosing is according to foreknowledge. How can you exclude knowledge? I see how you might want to interpret knowledge as intimate relationship (despite the prefixed fore-). But is also obvious that the text does not say "love" and it could have where it says "foreknew."

Now your quote of Eph 1 would bolster the idea by suggesting that foreknew is parallel with in love if (as you seem to suggest) that "in love" goes with the following "having predestined). I don't know which version you quoted, but the ASV puts "in love at the end of the verse as does the Greek (so also ESV, NASB, KJV all put "in love" at the end of the verse, not connected to the following).

He chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blemish before him in love: having foreordained us unto adoption as sons through Jesus Christ unto himself, according to the good pleasure of his will, to the praise of the glory of his grace,"

The prep phrase "in love" is separated quit a distance from "he chose." But it comes right before "having foreordained us."


ἐξελέξατο ἡμᾶς ἐν αὐτῷ πρὸ καταβολῆς κόσμου εἶναι ἡμᾶς ἁγίους καὶ ἀμώμους κατενώπιον αὐτοῦ ἐν ἀγάπῃ,

προορίσας . . .

There is this Greek sandwich style which can occur; so I can see how some might want to make "he chose" and "in love" the bread with the meat between, as it were, and then interpret that He chose in love. I have been reading this as "before Him in love," taking "in love" as connected to the first thing in the prior context to which it could readily attach (εἶναι to be) Some connect "in love to the following: "in love having foreordained us," which you seem to suggest by the way you quote it. At this point I am wishing that Paul had used punctuation.



I think Paul is alluding to Deut. 10:15.

15 Only the LORD had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people, as it is this day. (Deu 10:15 KJV)
 

Atwood

Senior Member
May 1, 2014
4,995
53
48
#58
Atwood asked from proof relating God's knowing Abe to the election which followed.

Originally Posted by Atwood

Proof?

What does God's knowing Abe have to do with Jews being elect becs Abe obeyed God? Proof for that one?


NKJ Genesis 26:1 . . . (Gen 26:1-5 NKJ)
Butch, if those verses mentioned "God knowing Abe," I missed it. The verses do address Abe's obedience to God.

That is the point of my post. Proginosko means to know before, ie. in the past. God proginosko (before knew) Abraham and made promises to him. He made promises to Abraham and his seed.
. . .
37 "And because He loved your fathers, therefore He chose their descendants after them; and He brought you out of Egypt with His Presence, with His mighty power, . . .
(Deu 4:35-39 NKJ)

Here it is implied that chose was because by prior-love, but not for the persons chosen.

God before knew Abraham.
But the text doesn't refer to God having known Abe; it does speak of God having loved Abe.

Your passages are indeed interesting, but they are not quote on point. What is wanted is an explanation of how foreknowing person X leads to person X being chosen; not how person X being loved leads to person Y being chosen.

---------------------------


I think you're referring to 1 Peter here. I would submit that firstly, 1 Peter is addressed to Jewish believers, so they were the seed of Abraham.
You fail to give any proof that only Jewish believers are addressed. Inasmuch as the Church had begun, and inasmuch as in Christ there is neither Jew nor Greek (etc.), it is unlikely that Peter restricts a message to Jews. And all believers are seed of Abe because they are in Christ.

The word "choice" in verse one is the word "eclectos". The passage says to the elect sojourners not elect according to forknowledge. Here is is the Greek text.

BGT 1 Peter 1:1 Πέτρος ἀπόστολος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐκλεκτοῖς παρεπιδήμοις διασπορᾶς Πόντου, Γαλατίας, Καππαδοκίας, Ἀσίας καὶ Βιθυνίας,
2 κατὰ πρόγνωσιν θεοῦ πατρὸς ἐν ἁγιασμῷ πνεύματος εἰς ὑπακοὴν καὶ ῥαντισμὸν αἵματος Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ, χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη πληθυνθείη. (1Pe 1:1-2 BGT)

Notice elect is in the first verse in both Young's translation and the Greek text.
To what will you connect κατὰ πρόγνωσιν? It has to go with ἐκλεκτοῖς.
Peter writes to the elect (who are sojourners) -- they are elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father in sanctification of the Spirit unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Christ Jesus.
"According to Foreknowledge" has to go with elect, just as "in sanctification of the Spirit unto obedience must. It would not fit to say that they are sojourners according to foreknowledge in sanctification of the Spirit unto obedience.
I makes sense that they are 1) elect according to foreknowledge, 2) elect in sanctification of the Spirit, and 3) elect unto obedience. It makes unlikely sense to say they are sojourners in sanctification and sojourners unto obedience.

And the passage is parallel to Romans 8 where everyone who is foreknown is foreordained. Rom 8 hardly says that everyone who is a sojourner is foreordained.
 

Atwood

Senior Member
May 1, 2014
4,995
53
48
#59
I think Paul is alluding to Deut. 10:15.

15 Only the LORD had a delight in thy fathers to love them, and he chose their seed after them, even you above all people, as it is this day. (Deu 10:15 KJV)
Your verse doesn't give a causal relationship tho it is safe to assume one. Thus God loves persons A and thus chose persons B. but that is not the NT doctrine we are examining. We are examining where Persons A are foreknown, and persons A are chosen.

If you have a verse somewhere that says that persons B are foreknown when God loves persons A (their ancestors), bring it forth.
 
May 2, 2014
1,060
12
0
#60
Your verse doesn't give a causal relationship tho it is safe to assume one. Thus God loves persons A and thus chose persons B. but that is not the NT doctrine we are examining. We are examining where Persons A are foreknown, and persons A are chosen.

If you have a verse somewhere that says that persons B are foreknown when God loves persons A (their ancestors), bring it forth.
My point is that Paul's use of foreknow, is speaking of the Israelites. I submit that the doctrine, Person A was foreknown and person A is thus chosen, is not what foreknow is talking about. Jesus said that it was God'swill that all who see the Son and believe should have eternal life. It seems from this passage that God has chosen based on ones belief, not according to having known them in the past.

Paul says in Romans 11 that the people that God foreknew were the Jews, it is that context in which foreknew should be understood.