Grace is Unmerited Favor. Where's that in the Bible?

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Mar 28, 2014
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The practice of sin as a habit (present tense) is here raised, not sinless perfection. 1 John 3:9 - No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
Christ cleaned you of sin, you don't sin ,you cannot sin but you have sin where did you get it?


Before we obeyed that form of doctrine by choosing to believe the gospel (Romans 10:16; 1:16), we had been slaves to sin. Whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins (Acts 10:43). When we place our faith exclusively in Christ for salvation/believe the gospel by trusting in His finished work of redemption as the all sufficient means of our salvation, we then become "servants of obedience unto righteousness" (Romans 6:16). Being slaves of sin is put in the past tense. Paul goes on in Romans 6:18 - "You have been set free from sin and have become slaves to righteousness."
your sins are remitted you obey onto righteousness...free from sin...but you have sin ...where did you get it?



Notice in Romans 10:10 - For with the heart one believes unto righteousness..
the heart believes your action follow suit

Notice in Romans 4:5 - But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith (not works) is accounted for righteousness.
go back to chapter 3 you will notice he is speaking about works of the law


Yes, through Christ, but I am not (in of myself) sinless.
so Christ freed you from sin but you are still in sin?

I have been set free from sin and I'm saved and I no longer practice sin, but righteousness (1 John 3:9-10).
but you admit you are in sin

I don't continue in sin (the practice of sin as a habit "present tense" is here raised), not sinless perfection.
but if you have sin the idea of (the practice of sin as a habit "present tense" is here raised) makes no sense since you already have sin


1 John 3:9 - No one who is born of God practices sin, because His seed abides in him; and he cannot sin, because he is born of God.
then you are not born of God because you admit you have sin

Galatians 5:19 - Now the deeds of the flesh are evident, which are: immorality, impurity, sensuality, 20 idolatry, sorcery, enmities, strife, jealousy, outbursts of anger, disputes, dissensions, factions, 21 envying, drunkenness, carousing, and things like these, of which I forewarn you, just as I have forewarned you, that those who practice such things will not inherit the kingdom of God.
this point here is a waste of time since you admit you already have sin....

1 Corinthians 6:9 - Or do you not know that the unrighteous will not inherit the kingdom of God? Do not be deceived; neither fornicators, nor idolaters, nor adulterers, nor effeminate, nor homosexuals, 10 nor thieves, nor the covetous, nor drunkards, nor revilers, nor swindlers, will inherit the kingdom of God. 11 Such were some of you; but you were washed, but you were sanctified, but you were justified in the name of the Lord Jesus Christ and in the Spirit of our God.
Which is what I have been trying to tell you...but you keep glorying in your sin
You don't trust God to free you from sins...you don't trust him to wash away your sins...you don't trust him to forgive you of sins...but you expect to be saved....if he says your sins are forgiven...trust him ...they are.....why do you want to retain them?
 

mailmandan

Senior Member
Apr 7, 2014
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You don't trust God to free you from sins...you don't trust him to wash away your sins...you don't trust him to forgive you of sins...but you expect to be saved....if he says your sins are forgiven...trust him ...they are.....why do you want to retain them?
This is a false accusation and a straw man argument. Who said anything about retaining sins or glorying in sin? I trust in Jesus to wash away my sins and save me and He has. Whoever believes in Him will receive remission of sins. You trust in works for salvation (and not exclusively in Jesus) and expect to be saved. You don't even know what you are talking about.
 
Mar 12, 2014
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Context.. :) Many times we separate chapters into sections. In many cases this deters from the truth.

"In other words, just as it was through one offence that all people came under condemnation, so also it is through one righteous act that all people come to be considered righteous. For just as through the disobedience of the one man, many were made sinners, so also through the obedience of the other man, many will be made righteous. And the Torah came into the picture so that the offence would proliferate; but where sin proliferated, grace proliferated even more. All this happened so that just as sin ruled by means of death, so also grace might rule through causing people to be considered righteous, so that they might have eternal life, through Yeshua the Messiah, our Lord. So then, are we to say, Let's keep on sinning, so that there can be more grace"? Heaven forbid! How can we, who have died to sin, still live in it? (Romans 5:18-21 and Romans 6:1-2)
If 18a means that by Adam sinning UNconditionally makes all men sinners then 18b means that the righteousness of Christ means that all men will be UNconditionally saved. A person cannot have it just one way. If 18a is true then 18b is just as true.
 
Mar 12, 2014
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Ro 5:18.


Eph 2:8-9.

Both texrs are clear, speak for themselves and need no explanation.

In the same chapter of Rom 5 in verse 1 and 2 Paul made being saved CONDITIONAL upon having faith.

Nowhere did Paul say ALL men are saved UNconditionally, faithlessly.
Just as nowhere did Paul say all men are sinners UNconditonally.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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Elin said:
SeaBass said:
Elin said:
Yes, Paul is addressing the saved who are his fellow workers, and therefore
is not referring to unconditional saving grace given to them,
which has already saved them.


He is referring to enabling grace given to the already saved for the Christian life.

If one's Christian works are wood, hay and stubble,
then they have received God's enabling grace in vain.


They themselves are saved by their unconditional saving grace,
but they will suffer loss of their reward in heaven
(1Co 3:12-15)
.
In 2 Cor 6:1 Paul is showing not only that
grace is received by man that it
can be received in vain, that
those Corinthians could fall from grace. . .and be lost.
"Fall from grace and be lost" is not in the text, that is your addition to the text.

The meaning of the actual words in the text is given above.
So now you say one can fall from grace and still be saved without grace?
The above is clear.
 
Jan 19, 2013
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Elin said:
With no verb in Ro 5:18b, it could mean "bring" life to all men, "offer" life to all men, "give" life to all men.

The correct verb will agree with the whole counsel of God
.
Verses 18 and 19 are like "if-then" type statements..."if" 18a is true "then" 18b is ALSO true, even so true. You cannot have it both ways.
The above is clear.

Where does Paul say men are made sinners UNconditionally or made righteous UNconditionally?
Previously addressed in the following:

Ro 5:18 is very clear:

"the result of one trespass was condemnation for all men,"

where "condemnation" in the NT always means to eternal death,

unless the word is accompanied with the word "death," as in "condemned to death,"
where it means physical death, and which phrase is not used in Ro 5:18.

You are repeating yourself.
 
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