"I and my Father are one. " (John 10:30)
And, yet, they are two:
"In the beginning was the Word, and THE WORD WAS WITH GOD, AND THE WORD WAS GOD. " (John 1:1)
Again:
"It is also written in your law, that THE TESTIMONY OF TWO MEN IS TRUE. I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me. " (John 8:17-18)
As far as Jesus and the Father being "one" is concerned, we need to consider the following:
"Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; THAT THEY ALL MAY BE ONE; AS THOU, FATHER, ART IN ME, AND I IN THEE, THAT THEY ALSO MAY BE ONE IN US: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; THAT THEY MAY BE ONE, EVEN AS WE ARE ONE: I IN THEM, AND THOU IN ME, THAT THEY MAY BE MADE PERFECT IN ONE; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me." (John 17:20-23)
When Jesus prayed that we may be "one", even as he and the Father are "one", was he praying that we would become God the Father, even as many allege that Jesus is God the Father?
Of course not.
Instead, he was praying that we would be "one", AS IN UNITED, as he and the Father are "one".
In other words, there are several instances in scripture where the word "one" does NOT mean a singularity.
Instead, it oftentimes means "united".
Here are some Biblical examples of this truth:
"Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:" (Deuteronomy 6:4)
The underlying Hebrew word which is here translated as "God" is 'ĕlōhîm which is the PLURAL form of the Hebrew word 'ĕlôha:
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/h430/kjv/wlc/0-1/
Transliteration
'ĕlōhîm
Pronunciation
el-o-heem'
Part of Speech
masculine noun
Root Word (Etymology)
Plural of אֱלוֹהַּ (H433)
Throughout the Old Testament, beginning with the very first verse of the Bible, God is presented to us in the PLURAL or as a PLURALITY.
How then can this PLURALITY be "one"?
Well, again, the answer is quite simple.
As I rightly mentioned earlier, there are several instances in scripture where the word "one" does NOT mean a "singularity", but instead it refers to some sort of "unity".
Before I cite you some additional examples of this truth, let's first look at the underlying Hebrew word which is translated as "one" in Deuteronomy 6:4.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/h259/kjv/wlc/0-1/
The underlying Hebrew word which is translated as "one" in Deuteronomy 6:4 is 'eḥāḏ, and there are clearly instances where this Hebrew word is used in the Old Testament where it is NOT describing a "singularity", but rather a oneness as in "unity".
Here are a couple of examples:
"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one H259 flesh." (Genesis 2:24)
Here, TWO PEOPLE are said to be "one" (eḥāḏ) flesh.
Again, we read:
"And the LORD said, Behold, the people is one, H259 and they have all one H259 language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do." (Genesis 11:6)
Here, we have an example where the underlying Hebrew word eḥāḏ appears twice within the same verse, and where it clearly has TWO DIFFERENT MEANINGS within a single verse of scripture.
in the first instance, God describes A GROUP OF PEOPLE who were gathered together to build the tower of Babel as being "one", as in "united" in purpose.
In the second instance, God mentioned how this GROUP OF PEOPLE had "one" language, as in a SINGULARITY, before he confounded their speech.
Seeing how this same underlying Hebrew word can mean TWO DIFFERENT THINGS, context is very important.
Going back to Deuteronomy, we read:
"Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD: " (Deuteronomy 6:4)
Again, here, a PLURAL "God" ('ĕlōhîm), or PLURALITY, or Godhead is said to be "one" (eḥāḏ) as in "united".
Then we also have this example from the New Testament:
“For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” (I John 5:7)
Here, we see that “three are one” as in “united”.
Anyhow, when Jesus said “I and my Father are one”, he was NOT saying that he and the Father are the same person (for lack of a better word). Instead, he was saying that he and the Father were “united” in that he never said or did anything independently or apart from the Father.
“Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.” (John 5:19)
“I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.” (John 5:30)
“Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.” (John 8:28)
Etc., etc., etc.
And, yet, they are two:
"In the beginning was the Word, and THE WORD WAS WITH GOD, AND THE WORD WAS GOD. " (John 1:1)
Again:
"It is also written in your law, that THE TESTIMONY OF TWO MEN IS TRUE. I am one that bear witness of myself, and the Father that sent me beareth witness of me. " (John 8:17-18)
As far as Jesus and the Father being "one" is concerned, we need to consider the following:
"Neither pray I for these alone, but for them also which shall believe on me through their word; THAT THEY ALL MAY BE ONE; AS THOU, FATHER, ART IN ME, AND I IN THEE, THAT THEY ALSO MAY BE ONE IN US: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me. And the glory which thou gavest me I have given them; THAT THEY MAY BE ONE, EVEN AS WE ARE ONE: I IN THEM, AND THOU IN ME, THAT THEY MAY BE MADE PERFECT IN ONE; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me." (John 17:20-23)
When Jesus prayed that we may be "one", even as he and the Father are "one", was he praying that we would become God the Father, even as many allege that Jesus is God the Father?
Of course not.
Instead, he was praying that we would be "one", AS IN UNITED, as he and the Father are "one".
In other words, there are several instances in scripture where the word "one" does NOT mean a singularity.
Instead, it oftentimes means "united".
Here are some Biblical examples of this truth:
"Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD:" (Deuteronomy 6:4)
The underlying Hebrew word which is here translated as "God" is 'ĕlōhîm which is the PLURAL form of the Hebrew word 'ĕlôha:
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/h430/kjv/wlc/0-1/
Transliteration
'ĕlōhîm
Pronunciation
el-o-heem'
Part of Speech
masculine noun
Root Word (Etymology)
Plural of אֱלוֹהַּ (H433)
Throughout the Old Testament, beginning with the very first verse of the Bible, God is presented to us in the PLURAL or as a PLURALITY.
How then can this PLURALITY be "one"?
Well, again, the answer is quite simple.
As I rightly mentioned earlier, there are several instances in scripture where the word "one" does NOT mean a "singularity", but instead it refers to some sort of "unity".
Before I cite you some additional examples of this truth, let's first look at the underlying Hebrew word which is translated as "one" in Deuteronomy 6:4.
https://www.blueletterbible.org/lexicon/h259/kjv/wlc/0-1/
The underlying Hebrew word which is translated as "one" in Deuteronomy 6:4 is 'eḥāḏ, and there are clearly instances where this Hebrew word is used in the Old Testament where it is NOT describing a "singularity", but rather a oneness as in "unity".
Here are a couple of examples:
"Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one H259 flesh." (Genesis 2:24)
Here, TWO PEOPLE are said to be "one" (eḥāḏ) flesh.
Again, we read:
"And the LORD said, Behold, the people is one, H259 and they have all one H259 language; and this they begin to do: and now nothing will be restrained from them, which they have imagined to do." (Genesis 11:6)
Here, we have an example where the underlying Hebrew word eḥāḏ appears twice within the same verse, and where it clearly has TWO DIFFERENT MEANINGS within a single verse of scripture.
in the first instance, God describes A GROUP OF PEOPLE who were gathered together to build the tower of Babel as being "one", as in "united" in purpose.
In the second instance, God mentioned how this GROUP OF PEOPLE had "one" language, as in a SINGULARITY, before he confounded their speech.
Seeing how this same underlying Hebrew word can mean TWO DIFFERENT THINGS, context is very important.
Going back to Deuteronomy, we read:
"Hear, O Israel: The LORD our God is one LORD: " (Deuteronomy 6:4)
Again, here, a PLURAL "God" ('ĕlōhîm), or PLURALITY, or Godhead is said to be "one" (eḥāḏ) as in "united".
Then we also have this example from the New Testament:
“For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one.” (I John 5:7)
Here, we see that “three are one” as in “united”.
Anyhow, when Jesus said “I and my Father are one”, he was NOT saying that he and the Father are the same person (for lack of a better word). Instead, he was saying that he and the Father were “united” in that he never said or did anything independently or apart from the Father.
“Then answered Jesus and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.” (John 5:19)
“I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear, I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me.” (John 5:30)
“Then said Jesus unto them, When ye have lifted up the Son of man, then shall ye know that I am he, and that I do nothing of myself; but as my Father hath taught me, I speak these things.” (John 8:28)
Etc., etc., etc.
remove any ONE and we have no Gospel and no Salvation