Is poligamy a sin?

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Jason0047

Jason0047

Banned
#23
Jul 22, 2014
10,350
51
0
#23
Jason0047 said:

Verse 10 is dealing with the man committing adultery by taking a second wife thereby disolving his first marriage in God's eyes. However, according to the contract, her food, raiment, and duty of marriage (to provide for her financially), were not supposed to diminish, though. In verse 11, it says if he stopped providing financially for his first wife that he divorced by taking another wife, she could go free as a maid servant.
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How do we know verse 10 is dealing with the man committing adultery and divorcing her? Well, we know that this is what the text implies because nowhere else do we see God approving of men having more than one wife. For Christ said true marriage was between one woman and one man. That has always been the proper model of marriage. For when we read Scripture we have to confirm truth by comparing Scripture with other Scripture. Chances are if a person is misunderstanding a text big time and they are seeing something really wrong in it, the problem is with them and not God's Word. For they are not seeking to ask God what it means and they are not looking at cross reference passages (i.e. similar passages) to confirm that truth.
 
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blue_ladybug

blue_ladybug

Senior Member
#24
Feb 21, 2014
70,910
9,661
113
#24
yeppers, it sure is. A man (or woman) is NOT to have more than one spouse. Unless you're a Muslim or JW. They seem to have no problem with it.. lol..
 
I

ivanc0

Banned
#25
Mar 23, 2014
435
1
0
#25
Jason0047 said:
Edit:

Wanted to clarify what I said here. Verse 8 was the point where he married her (and not the point where they decide to marry). Sorry. I wrote that the wrong way. Anyways, before that point, she was just a maidservant. However, she had the option to marry the man's son instead as seen in verse 9. So there is no forced marriage going on here.

Thank you.

And may God bless you.

I hope this helps to resolve the problem you are having with this passage.
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Thanks for your explanations, But I think you putting it too nicely, "she had the option to marry the man's son" , She is a SLAVE she has no options but what the master decides for her.
and is a SLAVE for life, not 6 years like men.
God could have ruled out this practices, but he decides not to, this reflects the human nature of the god of the old testament.
This is why I think the old testament cannot be taken literally.
 
I

ivanc0

Banned
#26
Mar 23, 2014
435
1
0
#26
Jason0047 said:
How do we know verse 10 is dealing with the man committing adultery and divorcing her? Well, we know that this is what the text implies because nowhere else do we see God approving of men having more than one wife. For Christ said true marriage was between one woman and one man. That has always been the proper model of marriage. For when we read Scripture we have to confirm truth by comparing Scripture with other Scripture. Chances are if a person is misunderstanding a text big time and they are seeing something really wrong in it, the problem is with them and not God's Word. For they are not seeking to ask God what it means and they are not looking at cross reference passages (i.e. similar passages) to confirm that truth.
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I completely disagree with you, men could not be committing adultery, if the men involved in this practice will have committed adultery then another laws with have to be applied to them:
leviticus: [SUP]10 [/SUP]“‘And the man that committeth adultery with another man’s wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbor’s wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.

you say that, Abraham, Isaac, Jacob, Esau, Moses, David, Salomon they were all adulterous men? Don't you see a contradiction between your opinion and the facts in the Bible?
 
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