- Aug 12, 2019
In Acts 17:31,1 Corinthians 15:52,1 Thess.4:16, Acts 24:15 why do the Apostles use the future tense speech of the resurrection?
I'm not sure why you're asking me that. I believe that the saints in heaven are "ruling", in a sense, now, because they are sharing Jesus' throne. That doesn't mean I think the resurrection has occurred.
The kingdom has been inaugurated, but not fully consummated. Believers in heaven are reigning with Christ on his throne. In fact, even living believers are sharing his throne.
When the resurrection occurs, though, the New Heavens and New Earth begin. I do not believe in an intermediate Millennial rule of Jesus Christ. I believe that he reigns now, and as soon as he comes back, all his enemies will be defeated, the resurrection will occur, and the New Heavens and New Earth will begin. I don't believe in an intervening Millennium, as I believe Jesus is reigning from heaven now. Satan is bound in the sense that he cannot deceive mankind universally, but he is not bound in the sense of being unable to affect specific individuals or large groups of people. Specifically, I believe the phrase "the nations" relates to the Gentiles, and he is no longer able to deceive them with universal idolatry as he did before. However, he will be loosed prior to Jesus' return and allowed to do this again for a short period of time before Christ returns and vanquishes him.
Premillennialists believe two descriptions of the same battle are in fact separate incidences. I do not agree. I think their view is wrong because they read Revelation as a sequence of events from Rev 5 forward. I do not read Revelation like this, but I read it as four or more visions that have overlapping content.
Perhaps I don't understand your question though.