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Junior Member
Jul 28, 2017
[addressing Post #77]

^ Consider the following:

these next few verses are in the IMPERATIVE [/commands]:

--"be [imperative] ye therefore merciful as your father is also merciful" Luke 6:36

--"be [imperative] ye therefore ready..." Luke 12:40 [context re: "when he will RETURN FROM the wedding"... THEN the meal (G347), (i.e. the earthly MK age)]

--"be [imperative] ye therefore sober..." 1 Peter 4:7

--"be [imperative] ye therefore wise [/as shrewd] as serpents, harmless as doves" Matthew 10:16

... but the following verse (your verse, under discussion) is NOT in the "imperative," but instead says,

"be ye therefore [/ye shall be - future INDICATIVE] perfect, even as your Father which is in heaven is perfect." Matthew 5:48

[consider also: the Matthew 5:48 verse is in the context of the subject being spoken of, "the kingdom OF THE heavenS" (which is earthly-located)--see vv.3,5,10,19,20, in this particular chpt]
So is the "be ye therefore " imperative or indicative when written, "be ye therefore quiet" :ROFL:


Well-known member
Aug 3, 2018
So is the "be ye therefore " imperative or indicative when written, "be ye therefore quiet" :ROFL:
Well, I couldn't find that precise wording, but I found this one (not sure what YOU were referring to, though ;) ) :

Luke 4:35 -

"And Jesus did rebuke him, saying, 'Be silenced [IMPERATIVE PASSIVE], and come forth out of him;' and the demon having cast him into the midst, came forth from him, having hurt him nought"

... so, in this verse, "IMPERATIVE" is the answer (re: your Q). But "imperative PASSIVE," specifically.

[hope you're not perceiving my "CAPS-for-emphasis" as "yelling," which I am not intending. :) Otherwise, I have no clue what you are speaking of... but that's okay. Carry on. = ) ]


Well-known member
Jul 3, 2020
Actually, when a stand alone instruction for a specific act isn't understood, then the person claiming that they can't comprehend it isn't because it is out of context, especially if one is perfect before the Comforter.
No, it is because a stand alone verse doesn't account for the full context of God's message in that passage which appears as a chapter. That's why the Bible isn't a bunch of individual verses page after page. It is books, with chapters, as letters, to the world. The verse numbers are to allow for a break in the message rather than one wall of text. But the message in each chapter, in each book, is in full. Not in increments, as a single verse would prescribe.

In context we can understand your response based upon the instruction, "...
be ready always to give an answer to every man that asketh you a reason of the hope that is in you" regarding the question presented in my original post "So when does a person know when they are perfect, then did the master not tell if they don't know the truth about being perfect?"

Luke 6:46 wouldn't apply if there was no instruction to be perfect, I would end with this, it is your house so build it wherever you want to.
Great verse! Luke 6:46 46"Why do you call me, 'LORD, LORD,' and do not do what I say?
Why do you insist Jesus full message in Matthew 5 isn't important. You focus on the tree and ignore the forest.
48 “You shall therefore be perfect, as your Father, Who is in Heaven, is perfect.”
How to be perfect? Jesus tells you in all 47 verses before that last one that informs you, after giving the directions in those 47 verses if you read the words in verse 48 and understand they pertain to all that is contained in all 47 verses above it. You shall therefore, (following the directions in those 47 verses, be perfect as your Father, who is in Heaven, is perfect.

That is why context is so important.
Reading just verse 48 leaves the question. How are we to be perfect? While 47 verses answer that question. This is why they come before verse 48 which is the summary.