quote On Revelation 20 consider the following points.
a. Satan has already been bound - Is. 49:24, 25; Matt. 12:28, 29; Mark 3:27; Luke 11:20-22; John
12:31, 16:11. In these Scriptures the strong man is Satan, the ruler of this fallen world; the one who
overwhelms him and takes his property (i.e., us) is Christ. The binding of Satan is not absolute (note
the absence of absolutes in the text), rather, Satan's determining to keep whole nations in darkness
has been bound so that he cannot stop the progress of the Gospel to the world nor lead the Church
astray, although he still retains his power to tempt (cf. Matt. 24:14; Eph 6:10-12). unquote
When did this angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand and lay hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years according to (Rev 2:1,2)? Was it right after the cross, Christ's resurrection, His ascension or at Pentecost or sometime thereafter? After the ascension of Christ, who now sits at the right hand of the Father, how is it that the Holy Spirit through Paul wrote that Satan actively blinds the minds of those that believe not (2Cor 4:4)? That goes way beyond any personal temptation he has with man to get them to succumb to sin through the flesh.
Do you think that the devices and strategies of the devil, with his principalities, powers, rulers of darkness and spiritual wickedness, that pervade the atmosphere just above the earth, is only involved with fleshly temptations that we wrestle against (Eph 2:2, Eph 6:12)? Is not Satan considered the god of this world (2Cor 4:4)? Did not Paul also write that Satan has the ability to beguile believers from the simplicity of the gospel, as he did through subtlety by beguiling the woman (Eve) in the garden (Gen 3:13)? So how has he been bound in these areas? I suppose that the devil does not seek whom he can devour or try to sift believers as wheat (1Pt 5:8, Lk 22:31)? I suppose he has no power to lie and decieve through those lies, being the father of all lies (Jn 8:44)?
I suppose that Satan can no longer transform himself into an angel of light and also his ministers as ministers of righteousness (2Cor 11:14) to deceive with a counterfeit light through another Christ, another gospel and another (s)pirit (2Cor 11:4). This is Jews and Gentiles alike. BTW - What do you think the mystery of iniquity is all about that is already at work in this present evil world (2Thes 2:7,8, Gal 1:4)? What about the evil that is in the world, which is different from sin, who is behind these things including the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes and the pride of life (1Jn 216)? What about those that depart from the faith that give place to the devil (Eph 4:27) and give heed to seducing spirits and doctrines of demons (2Tim 4:1), have these no present application in the church? Has the devil and his confederated host of demons been bound from these things?
If this 1,000 years started around the ascension of Christ are we to believe is was some kind of figure of speech or some symbolic time frame that could have lasted not more than a 1,000 years? Even that by my calculations would be a time frame of over 2,000 years to date? Can you explain in (Rev 20) why the term 'thousands years' is used (6) times in the first (7) verses and you want us to believe that it is not a literal 1,000 years being referred to? The Greek phrase for 'thousand years' is made up of chilioi etos, meaning 1,000 years and it is a literal term of 1,000 years and the Holy Spirit made sure that we understood that by mentioning that term (6) times in (Rev 20:1-7) just so it would sink in. I will stop there so that you can ponder that and hopefully it will sink into your prefrontal lobe.
a. Satan has already been bound - Is. 49:24, 25; Matt. 12:28, 29; Mark 3:27; Luke 11:20-22; John
12:31, 16:11. In these Scriptures the strong man is Satan, the ruler of this fallen world; the one who
overwhelms him and takes his property (i.e., us) is Christ. The binding of Satan is not absolute (note
the absence of absolutes in the text), rather, Satan's determining to keep whole nations in darkness
has been bound so that he cannot stop the progress of the Gospel to the world nor lead the Church
astray, although he still retains his power to tempt (cf. Matt. 24:14; Eph 6:10-12). unquote
When did this angel come down from heaven, having the key of the bottomless pit and a great chain in his hand and lay hold on the dragon, that old serpent, which is the Devil, and Satan, and bound him a thousand years according to (Rev 2:1,2)? Was it right after the cross, Christ's resurrection, His ascension or at Pentecost or sometime thereafter? After the ascension of Christ, who now sits at the right hand of the Father, how is it that the Holy Spirit through Paul wrote that Satan actively blinds the minds of those that believe not (2Cor 4:4)? That goes way beyond any personal temptation he has with man to get them to succumb to sin through the flesh.
Do you think that the devices and strategies of the devil, with his principalities, powers, rulers of darkness and spiritual wickedness, that pervade the atmosphere just above the earth, is only involved with fleshly temptations that we wrestle against (Eph 2:2, Eph 6:12)? Is not Satan considered the god of this world (2Cor 4:4)? Did not Paul also write that Satan has the ability to beguile believers from the simplicity of the gospel, as he did through subtlety by beguiling the woman (Eve) in the garden (Gen 3:13)? So how has he been bound in these areas? I suppose that the devil does not seek whom he can devour or try to sift believers as wheat (1Pt 5:8, Lk 22:31)? I suppose he has no power to lie and decieve through those lies, being the father of all lies (Jn 8:44)?
I suppose that Satan can no longer transform himself into an angel of light and also his ministers as ministers of righteousness (2Cor 11:14) to deceive with a counterfeit light through another Christ, another gospel and another (s)pirit (2Cor 11:4). This is Jews and Gentiles alike. BTW - What do you think the mystery of iniquity is all about that is already at work in this present evil world (2Thes 2:7,8, Gal 1:4)? What about the evil that is in the world, which is different from sin, who is behind these things including the lust of the flesh, the lust of the eyes and the pride of life (1Jn 216)? What about those that depart from the faith that give place to the devil (Eph 4:27) and give heed to seducing spirits and doctrines of demons (2Tim 4:1), have these no present application in the church? Has the devil and his confederated host of demons been bound from these things?
If this 1,000 years started around the ascension of Christ are we to believe is was some kind of figure of speech or some symbolic time frame that could have lasted not more than a 1,000 years? Even that by my calculations would be a time frame of over 2,000 years to date? Can you explain in (Rev 20) why the term 'thousands years' is used (6) times in the first (7) verses and you want us to believe that it is not a literal 1,000 years being referred to? The Greek phrase for 'thousand years' is made up of chilioi etos, meaning 1,000 years and it is a literal term of 1,000 years and the Holy Spirit made sure that we understood that by mentioning that term (6) times in (Rev 20:1-7) just so it would sink in. I will stop there so that you can ponder that and hopefully it will sink into your prefrontal lobe.