1
I need an official ax grinding thread on this...
1. Why do people who demand an almost total literal interpretation, interpret near and soon in Revelation 1:3 as some kind of figurative code speak from Jesus? Why in one of the MOST non-symbolic parts of revelation do they drop their desire for a literal interpretation and demand it all the sudden become non-literal?
2. Why do futurists demand that there be an exact reference to every event in Revelation in an outside the bible history book? They don't do that with other parts of the Bible that aren't written about in some outside the Bible history book.
I somewhat loath myself for having an ax to grind.
1. Why do people who demand an almost total literal interpretation, interpret near and soon in Revelation 1:3 as some kind of figurative code speak from Jesus? Why in one of the MOST non-symbolic parts of revelation do they drop their desire for a literal interpretation and demand it all the sudden become non-literal?
2. Why do futurists demand that there be an exact reference to every event in Revelation in an outside the bible history book? They don't do that with other parts of the Bible that aren't written about in some outside the Bible history book.
I somewhat loath myself for having an ax to grind.